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Number of questions: 42

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# Exam Number/Code : SD0-101
# Exam Name : Service Desk Analyst Qualification
# Questions and Answers : 165 Q&As
# Update Time: 2010-05-14

1. Which of the options best describes a key responsibility of a Service Desk Manager?
A. To deliver ad-hoc levels of service quality from the Service Desk
B. To promote the Service Desk to the organisation and users
C. To manage Incidents and Major Incidents
D. To develop and manage the Problem Management team
Answer: B

2. If you are asked to name a Service Desk best practice, which option would be relevant?
A. SAP
B. KCS
C. Problem Management
D. itSMF
Answer: B

3. Which option best describes one of the roles of an SDA?
A. Managing users expectations
B. Delivering problem support
C. Negotiating SLAs with customers
D. Achieving reporting targets
Answer: A

4. Which of these options best describes personal accountability?
A. Delivering excellent levels of service quality
B. Admitting to errors
C. Taking ownership of your teams Incidents and Service Requests
D. Behaving and dressing in a distinctive manner
Answer: B

5. Where would you find clear definitions of boundaries and procedures for dealing with inappropriate behaviour?
A. Company policy documents
B. Incident Management documents
C. Service Desk procedure documents
D. Service Level Agreement documents
Answer: A

6. Your manager has told you that the Service Desk team must provide excellent customer service at all times. As an
SDA, what is the most important thing you must do to ensure that this happens?
SDA, what is the most important thing you must do to ensure that this happens?
A. Always show plenty of sympathy to the users
B. Always follow the procedures you understand best
C. Always reprimand colleagues who fail to deliver service excellence
D. Always listen to what users tell you
Answer: D

7. What should an SDA reasonably expect of users when they contact the service desk for assistance?
A. To provide valuable information regarding their opinion of the Service Desk
B. To provide valuable information regarding their view of the SLA
C. To provide an opportunity to receive feedback regarding their technical ability
D. To provide the relevant information needed to resolve their incident
Answer: D

8. In order to measure its efficiency, a Service Desk routinely measures First Contact Resolution performance; what
else might this data be used for?
A. To measure the effectiveness of the escalation procedure
B. To indicate levels of customer satisfaction
C. To measure how long users wait to speak to an SDA
D. To evaluate and adjust staffing levels
Answer: B

9. Some things can get in the way of good communication which of these options has the biggest impact on a Service
Desk?
A. Noise and general chatter
B. Inappropriate SLAs in place
C. An unreliable IT infrastructure
D. The users status in the organisation
Answer: A

10. Your organisation documents company policies to which it expects all employees to adhere. What is the most
important reason for SDAs to ensure they work within these policies?
A. Company policies support consistent behaviour
B. Company policies emphasise deviations from acceptable behaviour
C. Company policies meet their managers criteria for success
D. Company policies support creative approaches for SDA activities
Answer: A

11. Which option is the best example of a closed question?
A. What are the symptoms of your Incident?
B. Tell me what you were doing immediately prior to the Incident?
C. What version of the software do you have?
D. How can I be of help?
Answer: C

12. A primary responsibility of the Service Desk is to
A. Manage Major Incidents
B. Act as the resolver for all users Incidents and Service Requests
C. Resolve Problems
D. Acknowledge and record all Incidents and Service Requests
Answer: D

13. What is the best type of questioning to use to disengage a caller whilst ensuring a professional approach to call
management?
A. Reflective questions
B. Rapid questions
C. Open questions
D. Closed questions
Answer: D

14. Which of these options is NOT part of the correct procedure for putting a user on hold?
A. Asking the user for permission to remotely access their system
B. Communicating a valid reason for putting the user on hold
C. Giving the user a reasonable time frame
D. Regularly updating the user about the wait-time
Answer: A

15. Which option is a benefit of using Knowledge Management in a Service Desk?
A. This ensures that all staff will log Incidents uniformly
B. It removes the need for training of Service Desk staff
C. It reduces the Incident talk time for users
D. It reduces the overall cost of support
Answer: D

16. Which these options would NOT be a responsibility of the Service Desk?
A. Representing the IT organisation
B. Delivering first time fixes
C. Operating as a communications channel
D. Providing a reliable IT infrastructure
Answer: D

17. Consider your responsibilities as an SDA: which of these options best describes one of your principal
responsibilities?
A. To provide easily understood and accurate answers to users questions
B. To provide technically detailed answers to users questions
C. To provide users with information about the workings of the Service Desk
D. To provide recommendations about technical courses to users
Answer: A

18. What is the best reason for an SDA to follow documented processes and procedures?
A. It ensures that all customers perform consistently
B. It ensures that the SDA performs consistently
C. It ensures that customers consistently provide positive feedback
D. It ensures that the manager is protected from irate users
Answer: B

19. Your organisation has recently implemented SLAs and OLAs. A new starter on your team has confided in you
that they dont really understand what an OLA is; how would you explain it to him/her?
A. It is a legally enforceable contract between a user and a supplier to ensure user satisfaction with services offered
B. It is an ad-hoc arrangement between internal support teams that is helpful to the support of a contract
C. It is an agreement between internal support teams that defines the support necessary to meet delivery of IT
Services
D. It is a methodology used to measure compliance to standards of behaviour
Answer: C

20. A new trainee is being inducted into the Service Desk and s/he questions why there are procedures and the need
for documentation. What should you tell him/her to justify the need for consistent procedures and processes?
A. Clear procedures mean that everything is done uniformly to eliminate errors
B. Clear procedures mean that customers receive consistent service
C. SLAs and procedures ensure that staff will not be criticised if targets are not met
D. Consistent procedures mean that SLAs and OLAs will always be met
Answer: B

Cisco 642-242 Exam
SD0-101 Service Desk Analyst Qualification
SD0-302 Service Desk Manager Qualification
SD0-401 Service Desk Foundation Qualification

IT Exam
Cisco 642-242 Exam
Cisco 642-242 Exam
Cisco
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# Exam Number/Code : GE0-703
# Exam Name : GCP7- Consultant, Voice Enterprise Edition
# Questions and Answers : 108 Q&As
# Update Time: 2010-06-03

1. The GVP VoiceXML application logic resides on __________.
A. a web server
B. the VCS
C. the VPM
D. the IPCM
Answer:A

2. When would you use the Import Server Instance CSV feature in EMPS?
A. Never. This feature is not available through the EMPS
B. Any time you want to make a change to any of the parameters in EMPS
C. You want to start the Watchdog service
D. When numerous changes are needed with servers or configuration of various components for a server and in
conjunction with Genesys Technical Support
Answer:D

3. The .xml files provides all of the __________.
A. VCS configuration information
B. voice application information
C. IPCS configuration information
D. web server configuration information
Answer:B

4. Under what circumstances is a username and password required to access the EMPS?
A. Never. By default, a username and password is not required since EMPS is only used for monitoring purposes.
B. Always. When opening EMPS Login screen, the system will require users enter their username and password.
C. Only when the EMPS is being accessed from a remote workstation. You are automatically authenticated and can
log in from a local machine.
D. Only when using SunOne Directory Server because OpenLDAP has no built-in security for the EMPS login screen.
Answer:B

5. Which GVP application is used to build and test voice applications?
A. Element Management Provisioning System
B. IP Call Manager
C. Voice Application Reporter
D. Genesys Studio
Answer:D

6. Refer to the CTI Property tab in the Provisioning IVR profile section in the EMPS. The Default Route Number is
used when __________.
A. IVR Server is unable to contact the Solution Control Interface (SCI)
B. IVR Server is unable to contact the Universal Routing Server (URS), or when the URS is unable to find an agent
number to which it can route the call
C. IVR component, specifically Genesys Queue Adapter (GQA), cannot communicate with SCS.
D. IVR Server component cannot communicate with the Web Server
Answer:B

7. Which GVP software component is used to configure the various components of GVP including application
provisioning?
A. Element Management Provisioning System
B. IP Call Manager
C. Voice Application Reporter
D. Genesys Studio
Answer:A

8. The Internet Protocol Communication Server (IPCS) processes __________ calls.
A. SIP
B. HTML
C. TDM
D. EMPS
Answer:A

9. Which version of the VoiceXML Specification does GVP version 7.5 support?
A. VoiceXML 1.0
B. VoiceXML 1.1
C. VoiceXML 2.0
D. VoiceXML 3.0
Answer:C

10. Is ISCC function used by IVR-TServer in network mode ? Choose the best statement.
A. Yes because the IVR is like a second site
B. No because the IVR is integrated in the real site
C. No because ISCC function doesn?’t exist in IVR-TServer
Answer:A

11. Which of the following features can be changed using the Element Management System (EMS) GUI when
monitoring a VCS?
A. the log level for each process
B. the default directory for logging
C. the Behind or In-Front configuration for that particular VCS
D. the speech recognition vendor for that particular VCS
Answer:A

12. The .XML and .xml files are generated when __________.
A. a call arrives at the VCS
B. an application is created and configured in EMPS
C. the WatchDog on the EMPS is restarted
D. requested by the IVR Server
Answer:B

13. The Voice Communication Server (VCS) processes __________ calls.
A. VoIP
B. IPCS
C. Web-based GUI
D. TDM
Answer:D

14. Where is the default location of the DNIS Application Mapping Files?
A. CNdata
B. CNwebdispenserspd_data
C. CNconfig
D. http://EMPS:9810/spm
Answer:B

15. The process on the VCS/IPCS that starts the other component processes is the __________.
A. Page Collector
B. IVR Server Client
C. Call Flow Assistant
D. WatchDog
Answer:D

16. How are VoiceXML pages produced during a GVP call session?
A. Web application server generates VoiceXML when processing asp or jsp pages
B. VCS or IPCS produce VoiceXML when the call is initiated
C. EMPS produces VoiceXML when the request comes in
D. IPCS creates the VoiceXML when it relays SIP messages
Answer:A

17. In the .xml file, the IVRTimeout value determines __________.
A. how long URS waits for the response from web server before timing out and trying default routing target.
B. how long VCS/IPCS waits for the response from web server before timing out and attempting to reach the Backup
IVR URL.
C. how long GQA waits for the connection with the IVR Server before using the Backup IVR URL.
D. how long VCS/IPCS waits for the response from web server before timing out and attempting to reach the Primary
IVR URL.
Answer:B

18. The ability to record the caller’s speech for application analysis is configured in an IVR Profile within the EMPS
and is referred to as __________.
A. OA&M
B. EMS Runtime
C. Enable ASR Transcoding
D. Enable ASR Logging
Answer:D

19. The DNIS.xml provides __________.
A. the Primary Application URL
B. all application configuration information but no process information
C. the address of the IVR Server
D. the URL path to the .XML
Answer:D

20. A Primary Voice Application URL is required when provisioning the IVR Profile. The Primary Voice Application
CANNOT include __________.
A. the fully qualified name of the web server that hosts the application
B. the numeric IP address of the web server that hosts the application
C. the name of the first page of the voice application
D. the path to the .XML file
Answer:D

Cisco 642-242 Exam
GE0-701 GCP7-System Consultant for Inboud Voice
GE0-703 GCP7- Consultant, Voice Enterprise Edition
GE0-702 Genesys Certified Professional 7-Developer.Inbound Voice

IT Exam
Cisco 642-242 Exam
Cisco 642-242 Exam
Cisco

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# Exam Number/Code : 920-254
# Exam Name : ncss-optivity nms rls.10.3
# Questions and Answers : 67 Q&As

1. On an Enterprise Network Management System (ENMS) Rls. 10.4 Server, you want to use the ENMS firewall
support feature. Which components must be allowed communication through the firewall ports?
A. Apache web server, webOptSrvr and Redirection server
B. Apache web server, trap server,Redirection server and Management server
C. Management server and trap server
D. Windows 2000 server, Management server and trap server
Answer: A

2. On an Enterprise NMS (ENMS) Rls. 10.4 system, you are working with the AutoTopology Manager and are
creating a new discovery seed. You have completed the discovery seed name and IP address in theStart Discovery
text boxes. What other information is required in the dialog box?
A. seed router IP address
B. start and end subnet address range
C. IP address for the routing tables and the ARP cache
D. default gateway address for the specified seed device
Answer: B

3. A customer installed Enterprise Network Management System (ENMS) Rls. 4. They want to manage connections
with Out-Of-Bound Editor. What is the advantage of using Out-Of-Bound Editor?
A. This feature discovers network elements that belong to Wireless LAN.
B. This feature discovers network elements that exist in the topology database.
C. This feature reduces the management traffic overhead on your primary data network.
D. This feature allows easier traffic management by prioritization of network discovery requests.
Answer: C

4. A customer installed Enterprise NMS (ENMS) Rls. 10.4. They want to do network discovery using the
AutoTopology Manager. The topcd daemon manages the following topology applications that run on the Enterprise
server
1.End Node Topology
2.Network Layer Topology
3.Protocol Discovery
4.Data Link Layer Topology
What is the order in which the topcd daemon runs the topology applications listed above when the discovery process
is started?
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 3, 2, 4
C. 2, 4, 1, 3
C. 2, 4, 1, 3
D. 2,1,4,3
Answer: C

5. Which statement best describes the role of On Demand Discovery?
A. It lets you select a single mutlicast session or multiple mutlicast sessions for manual rediscovery.
B. It lets you periodically rediscover your network.
C. It lets you discover subnets even when you do NOT know the IP address of a seed router on a subnet.
D. It is what you use to discover IP-VPN (Internet Protocol-Virtual Private Network) devices and services.
E. It lets you select a reduced set of discovery options and parameters and quickly start a topology discovery.
Answer: E

6. A customer installed Enterprise NMS (ENMS) Rls. 10.4. They deleted an object by mistake in InfoCenter. What
can be done as a recovery procedure?
A. Rediscover the object.
B. Create an object with the same properties.
C. Restart InfoCenter without saving changes.
D. Restart InfoCenter without saving changes then restart ENMS.
Answer: A

7. A customer installed Enterprise NMS (ENMS) Rls. 10.4. They want to use InfoCenter to create customized folder
for viewing specific network resources. They want to configure a custom folder’s description, background color, icon
size, background image, aspect ratio, icon layout, image layout, and enable status propagation. In what part of folder
properties should this configuration be done?
A. Folder filter
B. Folder scope
C. Presentation tab
D. Configuration tab
Answer: C

8. On an Enterprise Network Management System (ENMS) Rls. 10.4 server, you want to use the ENMS firewall
support feature. You are planning to configure the firewall ports for the following applications:
Apache web server
webOptSvr
Redirection server
Which three ports in your firewall must be used for these applications?
A. Apache web server: default is port 80
webOptSrvr: must be port 391
Redirection server: any port greater than 1024
B. Apache web server: default is port 391
webOptSrvr: must be port 80
Redirection server: any port less than 1024
C. Apache web server: default is port 1024
webOptSrvr: must be port 80
Redirection server: any port greater than 1048
D. Apache web server: default is port 1048
webOptSrvr: must be port 1024
Redirection server: any port greater than 1024
Answer: A

9. Data Link Layer Topology
What is the order in which the topcd daemon runs the topology applications listed above when the discovery process
is started?
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 3, 2, 4
C. 2, 4, 1, 3
D. 2,1,4,3
Answer: C

10. A customer has Enterprise NMS (ENMS) Rls. 10.4 installed on their network. They want to view all Virtual Private
LAN Services (VPLSs) discovered on their network using the EONMS InfoCenter application. What is the correct
procedure?
A. Select VPLS from the View Menu in InfoCenter
B. Double-click on the VPLS folder from the Resource folder in the InfoCenter folder tree
C. Right-click on the Resource folder in the InfoCenter folder tree and select the VPLS option
D. Left-click on the Resource folder in the InfoCenter folder tree, then select the VPLS option from the View toolbar
Answer: B

Cisco 642-242 Exam
922-109 Communications Server 1000 Rls.6.0 BARS/NARS
922-111 Communication Server 1000 to Rls.6.0 Upgrades for Technicia
922-081 CallPilot Rls.5.0 Networking
920-457 CallPilot Ris.4.0 Unified Messaging Exam

IT Exam
Cisco 642-242 Exam

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