The 646-985 (DCNSS) Cisco Data Center Network Solutions Sales exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of the skills needed by an account manager to articulate a Cisco Data Center Networking Solution to a customer. This includes DC Networking Infrastructure, Applications Services, Storage, and Unified Computing.The 646-985 Cisco Data Center Network Solutions Sales exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of the skills needed by an account manager to articulate a Cisco Data Center Networking Solution to a customer.1. Which product can deploy virtual SSL security contexts logically across the data center network from a single physical device?

A. Cisco Nexus 7000 ModuleB. Cisco Storage Services ModuleC. Cisco Application Control Engine ModuleD. Cisco Firewall Services ModuleAnswer: C 2. What two things can a business implement to achieve better utilization of IT resources? (Choose two.)A. distributed managementB. role-based access controlC. embedded network intelligenceD. consolidation of data center resourcesE. business continuity with mirrored primary and secondary sitesAnswer: CD 3. Which explanation best describes the difference between a data center sales cycle and a traditional network sales cycle?A. A data center sales cycle begins much earlier in a project.B. A data center account manager requires more technical skills than commercial skills.C. A data center sales professional should use the customer’s network team to advise him when best to get involved in the sales cycle.D. A data center sales professional should wait until the design phase is complete before determining which Cisco solution best fits the requirements.Answer: A 4. What are blade switches?A. end-of-row switchesB. top-of-rack switchesC. modules that fit into MDS switchesD. modules that fit into blade server chassisAnswer: D 5. How does the Cisco ACE XML gateway improve server performance?A. by blocking XML traffic to the serverB. by offloading XML functions from the serverC. by providing SSL security for XML transfersD. by translating XML messages to HTML messagesAnswer: B

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1. Is the following statement true or false? The username you use to connect to MySQL must be the same as the login used to access the operating system. A. trueB. falseAnswer: B     2. Which of the following statements are required to create a key cache of 4 MB, assign the MyISAM table world.City to it and preload the index?A. mysql> SET GLOBAL city_cache.key_buffer_size = 4194304;mysql> CACHE INDEX world.City IN city_cache;mysql> LOAD INDEX INTO CACHE world.City;B. mysql> ALTER TABLE world.city KEY_CACHE = 4194304;C. mysql> CREATE CACHE FOR world.City SIZE = 4194304;D. It is not possible to create a key cache for a specific MyISAM table, only the global key cache can be used.Answer: A 3. How can the SHOW PROCESSLIST command be helpful when optimizing queries?A. It shows if a query is using an index or not.B. It shows how the server processes a query.C. If checked periodically, it can reveal queries that cause other queries to hang.D. It shows the percentage of processing power that each query is using on a server.Answer: C     4. Consider the following:mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT Name FROM Country WHERE Code = ‘CAN’\G *************************** 1. row ***************************           id: 1select_type: SIMPLE      table: Country       type: constpossible_keys: PRIMARY          key: PRIMARY      key_len: 3          ref: const         rows: 1        Extra:Which of the following best describes the meaning of the value of the type column?A. The table has exactly one row.B. Several rows may be read from the table.C. Only one row of all its rows need to be read.Answer: C     5. Which of the following best describes why InnoDB tables should always have primary keys and why they should be short?A. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate tables, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.B. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate table rows, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.C. Because InnoDB stores pointers in a log to all the primary keys and shorter keys make this log smaller.Answer: B      6. Which of the following best describes how the relay log works?A. It records the times when the slave connects to the master.B. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is recorded in the relay log first and processed later.C. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is processed first and then recorded in the relay log.Answer: B

Exam Number/Code: 000-378

Exam Name: IBM WebSphere DataPower SOA Appliances, Firmware V3.7.3

Updated:2/22/2010

Questons and Answers : 76 questions

Exam Language(s): English

1. A customer is receiving binary packed EDI using S/MIME over HTTP and S/MIME over FTP. They
currently use WebSphere Partner Gateway and WebSphere Transformation Extender to send functional
acknowledgements, convert the message, and send a correlated response. They are interested in
improving performance and scaling this architecture to remove some of the processing overhead.
How could DataPower SOA Appliances provide a benefit to the customer in this scenario?
A. Add XS40 appliances in the DMZ to provide WS-Security decryption of the secure payload
B. Add XI50 appliances to convert the EDI to XML and send functional acknowledgements
C. Add XI50 appliances to parse the attachments on the request messages and deposit the result on a
WebSphere MQ queue
D. Add XB60 appliances to move the security functionality to the DMZ and send MDN
acknowledgements
E. Add XM70 appliances to send unicast UDP responses to the clients
Answer: D
2. Which is NOT a feature of Configuration Checkpoint Management?
A. The administrator can limit the number of Checkpoint configurations maintained.
B. Configuration objects can be imported from Checkpoint configurations.
C. Checkpoint configurations can be deleted from file system.
D. Checkpoint configurations may be compared against the running configuration.
E. Checkpoint configurations may be compared against the persisted configuration.
Answer: B
3. A company requires syncpoint on each message extracted from a Request Queue. The Message is
processed via HTTP by a backend system. If the DataPower device does not successfully process the
message, it should not be removed from the Request Queue. They have created a Multi-Protocol
Gateway
Service which uses an MQ Front Side Handler and an MQ Queue Manager to facilitate this.
How can they implement syncpoint?
A. Set the Queue Manager objects Units Of Work property to 1
B. Set the Queue Manager objects Total Connection Limit property to 1
C. The DataPower device utilizes an MQ Client, syncpoint cannot be implemented
D. The DataPower device utilizes an MQ Client, syncpoint is implemented by default
E. Create two Queue Manager objects, assign the Request Queue to one Queue Manager and the Reply
Queue to the other then add them both to a single MQ Queue Manager Group
Answer: A
4. Which method finds a host’s hardware address when only its IP address is known?
A. DNS (Domain Name Service)
B. ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)
C. HSRP (Hot Standby Routing Protocol)
D. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)
Answer: B
5. Which statement is true about the TCP protocol?
A. TCP is unreliable since it does not support checksum.
B. TCP has no capability to sequence transmitted packets.
C. TCP sends back an ACK packet if the transfer was successful.
D. TCP is usually faster than UDP and is required for any multicasting transmission.
Answer: C
6. Regarding asymmetric keys and certificates, a certificate contains a subject’s:
A. private key and the encrypted data.
B. private key and the identification of the issuer of the certificate.
C. public key and private key.
D. public key and the encrypted data.
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Test 4 Exam
E. public key and the identification of the issuer of the certificate.
Answer: E

 Exam Number/Code: 220-702Exam Name: CompTIA A+ Practical Application (2009 Edition)

Updated:2/24/2010

Certification Provider: CompTIA
Exam Code: 220-702
Exam Name: Practical Application

• Real Exam Questions
• Instant Access
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• Developed by CompTIA Experts

Questons and Answers : 610 questions

Exam Language(s): English

220-702 is for individuals who are interested in building a future in networking or programme domain on CompTIA products. The A is the prerequisite for any CompTIA Certification. If you want to reach a professional or expert level in the CompTIA career certification tracks, Passing 220-702 test is the first step.

1. A system powers on, begins POST, displays the BIOS version information and then hangs with theerror message Error loading operating system. Which of the following is MOST likely cause of this issue?A. A virus has infected the systemB. Corrupted BOOT.INI fileC. Corrupt MBRD. Boot sector corruptionAnswer: C2. A client has been unable to fix corruption of system files and does not have a backup or an AutomatedSystem Recovery (ASR) disk. Which of the following is the BEST action to take next?A. Copy the missing file from another computer and reboot.B. Execute a Windows repair from the Windows setup media.C. Boot into the Recovery Console and execute FIXBOOT.D. Reboot and press the F2 key when prompted.Answer: B3. A technician is called for a computer that is not connecting to the network. Which of the following wouldbe the MOST common tool used to identify the issue?A. Cable testerB. MultimeterC. Loop back plugsD. Crossover cableAnswer: A4.Which of the following is the BEST solution for repairing a hard drive that results in theNTLDR is missing display upon booting?A. Use recovery console and the fixmbr command.B. Use recovery console and the bootcfg /rebuild command.C. Use recovery console and the fixboot command.D. Use recovery console and the chkdsk command.Answer: C5. A customer reports they are unable to connect to any computers outside of the office and they areunable to connect to the Internet. When the technician runs ipconfig, the customer gets thefollowing output: IP address169.254.2.4Subnet Mask.255.255.0.0Default Gateway.Which of the following could be causing the issue?A. The subnet mask is not correctly configured.B. The DNS client has not been configured on the computer.C. The DHCP client is unable to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server.D. The default gateway is not specified.Answer: C  6. A user reports that their system is starting to run slower, especially when opening large local files. Thesystem has sufficient RAM for the users applications, but the hard drive seems to have higherthan normal activity when opening large files. Which of the following would be the BEST tool to diagnose andtroubleshoot this problem?A. Task ManagerB. NTBACKUPC. FDISKD. Disk DefragmenterAnswer: D7. A user states they receive a message Boot device not found half of the time they boot their system. Whichof the following is the MOST likely cause?A. A dead CMOS batteryB. The OS is not installed on the hard driveC. A faulty RAMD. A faulty HDD connectionAnswer: D8. A user reports they can no longer change the web browser home page. Which of the following is MOSTlikely the problem?A. They are using the wrong WEP key.B. They have been infected with malware.C. They have lost Internet connectivity.D. They need to update their network device drivers.Answer: B9. A technician needs to check which ports are open in the Windows Firewall. Which of the following will allowthe technician to view these settings?A. netsh firewall show loggingB. ipconfig /allC. netsh firewall show stateD. arp –aAnswer: C10. Which of the following are methods to automatically update the antivirus application? (Select TWO).A. Establish rules in the email scheduling program to perform updates.B. Select Update Now from the program options.C. Use the Automatic Update feature built into the application.D. Use scripts.E. Use Windows Update.Answer: CD

Exam Number/Code: 642-845

Exam Name: Optimizing Converged Cisco Networks

Updated:3/1/2010

Questons and Answers : 152 questions

Exam Language(s): English

1. Which two Cisco AutoQoS interface statements are true? (Choose two.)Select 2 response(s).A. AutoQoS is supported on Frame Relay multipoint subinterfaces.B. AutoQoS is supported on low-speed ATM PVCs in point-to-point subinterfaces.C. AutoQoS is supported on serial PPP and HDLC interfaces.D. AutoQoS is supported only on Frame Relay main interfaces and not on any subinterface configuration.Answer: BC 2. Which two wireless security statements are true? (Choose two.)Select 2 response(s).A. A TACACS+ server is required to implement 802.1x.B. MIC protects against man-in-the-middle and replay attacks.C. The 802.1x standard provides encryption services for wireless clients.D. The AES (symmetric block cipher) is specified in the IEEE 802.11i specification.E. The IEEE 802.11i specification uses RC4 as its encryption mechanism.F. WPA requires TKIP and AES as encryption methods.Answer: BD 3. Which two statements regarding the Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE) are true? (Choose two.)Select 2 response(s).A. To support fault and policy reporting, the WLSE requires a Wireless Control System (WCS).B. When WLSE detects an AP failure, it automatically increases the power and cell coverage of nearby APs.C. WLSE requires the 2700 location appliance to offer location tracking.D. WLSE can locate rogue APs and automatically shut them down.E. WLSE configuration is done using the command line interface (CLI) or a WEB based template.Answer: BD 4. Which two statements are true about the function of CAC? (Choose two.)Select 2 response(s).A. CAC provides guaranteed voice quality on a link.B. CAC artificially limits the number of concurrent voice calls.C. CAC is used to control the amount of bandwidth that is taken by a call on a link.D. CAC prevents oversubscription of WAN resources that is caused by too much voice traffic.E. CAC allows an unlimited number of voice calls while severely restricting, if necessary, other forms of traffic.F. CAC solves voice congestion problems by using QoS to give priority to UDP traffic.Answer: BD 5. Which two statements are true about the implementation of QoS? (Choose two.)Select 2 response(s).A. Implementing DiffServ involves the configuration of RSVP.B. Implementing IntServ allows QoS to be performed by configuring only the ingress and egress devices.C. Implementing IntServ involves the utilization of RSVP.D. Traffic should be classified and marked by the core network devices.E. Traffic should be classified and marked as close to the edge of the network as possible.Answer: CE 6. What are the steps for configuring stateful NBAR for dynamic protocols?Select the best response.A. Use the command ip nbar protocol-discovery to allow identification of stateful protocols. Use the command ip nbar port-map to attach the protocols to an interface.B. Use the command match protocol rtp to allow identification of real-time audio and video traffic. Use the command ip nbar port-map to extend the NBAR functionality for well-known protocols to new port numbers.C. Use the command match protocol to allow identification of stateful protocols. Use the command ip nbar port-map to attach the protocols to an interface.D. Configure a traffic class. Configure a traffic policy. Attach the traffic policy to an interface.E. Configure video streaming. Configure audio streaming. Attach the codec to an interface.Answer: D 7. Two sites are using a multisite centralized call processing model. The voice gateway on the remote branch has lost IP connectivity to its Cisco CallManager server. Which feature enables the remote gateway to take the role of the call agent during the WAN failure?Select the best response.A. automated alternate routing (AAR)B. Cisco CallManager Attendant ConsoleC. real-time protocol (RTP)D. Survivable Remote Site Telephony (SRST)Answer: D 8. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers have been configured as VoIP gateways. They must also support traditional telephony devices to connect to analog telephones. Which two configuration changes would correctly support the voice requirements? (Choose two.)Select 2 response(s).A. On each router, under the dial-peer voice 1 pots configuration, add the port fa0/0 command.B. On each router, under the dial-peer voice 1 pots configuration, add the port 1/0/0 command.C. On each router, configure dial-peer voice 1 as a voip connection and configure dial-peer voice 2 as a pots connection.D. Under the dial-peer voice 1 pots configuration, change the destination pattern of 1111 to 2222 on the R1 router, and 2222 to 1111 on the R2 router.E. Under the dial-peer voice 2 voip configuration, change the destination pattern of 1111 to 2222 on the R1 router, and 2222 to 1111 on the R2 router.F. Under the dial-peer voice 2 voip configuration, change the destination target address of 10.2.2.2 to 10.1.1.1 on the R1 router, and the destination target address of 10.1.1.1 to 10.2.2.2 on the R2 router.Answer: BE 9. To have the best possible voice quality and to utilize effectively the available bandwidth, which queuing and compression mechanisms need to be used? (Choose two.)Select 2 response(s).A. class-based weighted fair queuing (CBWFQ)B. low latency queuing (LLQ)C. priority queuing (PQ) or custom queuing (CQ)D. Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) header compressionE. TCP header compressionF. UDP header compressionAnswer: BD 10. Which three statements about end-to-end delay are true? (Choose three.)Select 3 response(s).A. End-to-end delay is the sum of propagation delays, processing delays, serialization delays, and queuing delays.B. Coast-to-coast end-to-end delay over an optical link is about 20 ms.C. Processing delay depends on various factors, which include CPU speed, CPU utilization, IP switching mode, and router architecture.D. Propagation and serialization delays are related to the media.E. Propagation delay is the time it takes to transmit a packet and is measured in bits-per-second (bps).F. Serialization delay is the time it takes for a router to take the packet from an input interface and put it into the output queue of the output interface.Answer: ACD

1. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the partial configuration, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. A CBAC inspection rule is configured on router RTA.B. A named ACL called SDM_LOW is configured on router RTA.C. A QoS policy has been applied on interfaces Serial 0/0 and FastEthernet 0/1.D. Interface Fa0/0 should be the inside interface and interface Fa0/1 should be the outside interface.E. On interface Fa0/0, the ip inspect statement should be incoming.F. The interface commands ip inspect SDM_LOW in allow CBAC to monitor multiple protocols.Answer: AF 

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the SDF Locations window of the IPS Rule wizard are true? (Choose two.)

 A. An HTTP SDF file location can be specified by clicking the Add button.B. If all specified SDF locations fail to load, the signature file that is named default.sdf will be loaded.C. The Autosave feature automatically saves the SDF alarms if the router crashes.D. The Autosave feature is automatically enabled for the default built-in signature file.E. The name of the built-in signature file is default.sdf.F. The Use Built-In Signatures (as backup) check box is selected by default.Answer: AF 3. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the AAA configuration are true? (Choose two.)

A. A good security practice is to have the none parameter configured as the final method used to ensure that no other authentication method will be used.

B. If a TACACS+ server is not available, then a user connecting via the console port would not be able to gain access since no other authentication method has been defined.C. If a TACACS+ server is not available, then the user Bob could be able to enter privileged mode as long as the proper enable password is entered.D. The aaa new-model command forces the router to override every other authentication method previously configured for the router lines.E. To increase security, group radius should be used instead of group tacacs+.F. Two authentication options are prescribed by the displayed aaa authentication command.Answer: DF

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Exam Number/Code : 922-101
Exam Name : Communication Server 1000 Linux Platform Architecture
Questions and Answers : 32 Q&As
922-101 Update Time: 2010-02-24

1. You have installed the Linux Base onto a Commercial Off the Shelf (COTS) server that will be configured as a Member Server. You are ready to perform the Security Configuration. All LAN connections are in place and functioning normally.After connecting through a browser, what is your next step to perform the Security Configuration of this COTS Member server?A. Enter the IP address of the Certificate Authority in the address bar of the browser.B. Enter the IP address of the Primary Security server in the address bar of the browser.C. Enter the FQDN of the COTS Member server in the address bar of the browser.D. Enter the FQDN of the Primary Security server in the address bar of the browser.Answer: C 2. A customer is deploying a Communication Server (CS) Rls. 6.0 system. They plan to have a Dell R300 COTS configured as the Primary Security Server and a CPPM configured as a Backup Security Server.Which statements regarding the roles of the Primary and Backup Security Server are true? (Choose two.)A. You must have a Backup Security Server for the CS 1000 network.B. The Backup Security Server is automatically promoted to Primary Security Server.C. The Primary Security Server cannot be demoted to a member server.D. The Backup Security Server automatically handles authentication requests when the Primary is down.Answer: CD 3. A customer is deploying a Communication Server 1000 Rls. 6.0 High Availability system and would like to know what options for Signaling Server functionality exist.Which options can the customer deploy? (Choose two.)A. CPPM VxWorks-based Signaling ServerB. CPPM Linux-based Signaling ServerC. COTS VxWorks-based Signaling ServerD. COTS Linux-based Signaling ServerAnswer: BD 4. A large corporation recently deployed five Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 6.0 systems to support their regional call center environment. All five systems function under the same Unified Communications Management Security Domain. During a busy workday some UCM administrators cannot login.Which UCM feature is most likely the reason administrators cannot login to UCM?A. The UCM network reached the maximum number of concurrent users.B. The UCM network reached the maximum number of Virtual Terminal sessions.C. The UCM network reached the maximum number of Secure Socket Shell (SSH) sessions.D. The UCM network reached the maximum numbers of administrators which can simultaneously login.Answer: D

Exam Number/Code: ST0-066

Exam Name: Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 (STS)

Updated:1/29/2010

Questons and Answers : 91 questions

Exam Language(s): English

1. Which two agents are required for Patch Management to successfully deploy client patches? (Select two.)A. Altiris AgentB. Software Delivery AgentC. Patch Management Update AgentD. Software Update AgentE. Patch Management AgentAnswer: AD     2. What is the function of the applicability rule?A. It determines conflicts with other software resources within the Software Catalog.B. It determines if a software resource has all the required components for delivery.C. It determines if a software resource is applicable to the Software Portal for self-delivery.D. It determines if a software resource is applicable to a given computer.Answer: D     3. Which Inventory Solution activity is accomplished without leveraging a task or policy?A. detailed file inventoryB. stand-alone inventoryC. custom inventoryD. targeted software inventoryAnswer: B     4. Which Deployment Solution 6.9 Console feature lets the Deployment Solution Manager create jobs that can automatically determine which set of tasks to perform on a computer?A. Auto-detectB. ConditionsC. FiltersD. DeployAnywhereAnswer: B     5. Which type of component is included in the Software Catalog?A. licensesB. hotfixesC. updatesD. uninstallsAnswer: C     6. Which two utilities or programs add additional pre-boot automation operating systems to the Deployment Solution 6.9 installation? (Select two.)A. PXE Configuration UtilityB. Boot Disk CreatorC. Ghost ExplorerD. PXE Component InstallerE. PXE Automation InstallerAnswer: AB     7. Which statement is true about the Application Metering feature of Inventory Solution?A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on the network.C. It gathers detailed information about application files.D. It limits the usage of applications to purchased licenses.Answer: B     8. Which statement is true about the Application Management feature of Inventory Solution?A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on a network.C. It gathers detailed information about application files.D. It limits the usage of applications to the number of purchased licenses.Answer: A     9. Which component of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 helps reduce the cost of imaging and managing workstations and thin clients from a centralized location?A. Endpoint Virtualization SolutionB. Ghost Solution SuiteC. Deployment SolutionD. Hardware Management SolutionAnswer: C     10. Which two products are included in Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0? (Select two.)A. Ghost Solution SuiteB. Recovery SolutionC. Real-Time System ManagerD. Wise Package StudioE. Deployment SolutionAnswer: CE

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Mac OS X Server Essentials 10.6 200

• Exam Number/Code : 9L0-510
• Exam Name : Mac OS X Server Essentials 10.6 200
• Questions and Answers : 76 Q&As

9L0-510 exam questions
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1. Review the screenshot of the Permissions pane in Server Admin, and then answer the question below.You have assigned permissions to a folder, as illustrated. What access does the user, Pat, have to the folder?A. Pat has read-only access to the folder.B. Pat has write-only access to the folder.C. Pat does not have any access to the folder.D. Pat has both read and write access to the folder.Answer: D 2. In Mac OS X Server, preference manifests allow Workgroup Manager to ________.A. store a common set of preferences in a directoryB. read related blocks of managed preferences at user loginC. associate preferences to a computer using a specific IP addressD. manage preferences for applications that are not already managed by default by Workgroup ManagerAnswer: D 3. Which utility should you use to manage preferences assigned to computer accounts?A. Server AdminB. Directory UtilityC. Server PreferencesD. Workgroup ManagerAnswer: D 4. Which feature is available in the Software Update service in Mac OS X Server?A. Restrict client computers to downloading Apple software updates from your software update server only.B. Automatically download all Apple software updates, but serve only selected updates to client computers.C. Restrict client computers’ access to Apple software updates based on client computer Ethernet addresses.D. Create and distribute custom software update packages to client computers, alongside Apple software updates.Answer: B 5. Which statement best describes a mobile user account?A. A user account created by Setup Assistant on a portable computer.B. An account that users can log in to only from a computer on a wireless network.C. An account that users can log in to from either a Mac OS X or a Windows computer.D. A user account that has been migrated from an Active Directory server to an Open Directory server.E. A network user account that is copied to the local directory node of the computer when the user logs in.Answer: E 6. You have installed Mac OS X Server v10.6, and are performing its initial configuration. If you select “Create Users and Groups” in the “Users and Groups” pane in Server Assistant, what is the result?A. The new server is configured as an Open Directory master.B. The new server is configured as an Open Directory replica.C. The new server is configured as a standalone directory server.D. The new server is bound to an existing directory server on the network.Answer: A 7. You want a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer to use an XML configuration file to configure itself when it starts up for the first time. Which is a valid location to store the configuration file?A. In /Users/Shared/Auto-Config/ on your DHCP serverB. In /Volumes/usbdrive/Auto Server Setup/ on the new serverC. On any Software Update server on the same subnet as the new serverD. In /Users/Shared/Auto Server Setup/ on any Mac OS X server on your networkAnswer: B

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1. Review the four Apple System Profiler screenshots from a single Mac OS X v10.6 computer, and then answer the question below.What version of EFI firmware is installed on the computer whose profile is shown above?A. MP31.006C.B05B. 1.25f4C. 68929F4A-E7A4-5A2C-AFA2-F9E3467E872ED. 01.00.252E. BC14F. 1.3.0Answer: A 2. When a user chooses Shut Down from the Apple menu, what process quits all of the user’s open applications and tells the kernel to power down the computer?A. initB. launchdC. kernel_taskD. loginwindowAnswer: D 3. How do you start up a Mac OS X v10.6 computer in single-user mode?A. Type the command reboot -single in Terminal.B. Hold down the Command-S keys while the computer restarts.C. Hold down the Shift-Option keys while the computer restarts.D. Select Single-User Mode in the Startup Disk pane of System Preferences and restart the computer.Answer: B 4. Which folder contains items that are started by the launchd process when a Mac OS X v10.6 computer starts up?A. /etc/launchd/B. /var/run/launchd/C. /Library/Extensions/D. /System/Library/LaunchDaemons/Answer: D 5. Which statement describes characteristics of starting up a Mac OS X v10.6 computer in Safe Boot?A. To simplify troubleshooting, non-core components of the operating system do not load.B. To prevent user access to sensitive system files, Simple Finder loads instead of the standard Finder.C. To increase data security, local volumes are mounted with read-only privileges assigned to all standard users.D. To increase data security, Firewall and Sharing settings are modified to enable only the minimum set of protocols.Answer: A