cheaptestinside 000-316 Practice exam
Exam Number/Code: 000-316

Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Integration Developer V6.1

Updated:6/20/2009

Questons and Answers : 98 questions

Exam Language(s): English

Exam A
QUESTION 1
After some initialization, a long running business process needs further input from the client. The process
should only wait for a certain period of time. If that time has passed without further user input, default
processing should start. Which BPEL construct can most effectively handle this situation?
A. Receive choice with a timeout element
B. Receive activity with a parallel wait activity
C. Receive choice with a subsequent wait activity
D. Receive activity with expiration properties defined
Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Given the selector in the Exhibit, which statement is true regarding the selector and its configuration?
A. The selector configuration is incorrect because Component4 is not referenced.
B. The selector configuration is correct and Component1 will be invoked on April 27, 2008.
C. The selector configuration is incorrect because Component3 is used incorrectly in the component
schedule.
D. The selector configuration is correct and Component1, Component2, Component3, and Component4 must
all have the same interface.
Answer: B
QUESTION 3
An integration developer needs to access an HTTP SOAP header in a mediation flow. How should an XPath
HTTP SOAP header?
A. /headers/SOAPHeader
B. /SMOHeader/SOAPHeader
C. /headers/Envelope/Header
D. /SMOHeader/Envelope/Header
Answer: A
QUESTION 4
A business rule applies a graduated discount rate based on an input customer’s total purchases over the past
year. How should the business rule be implemented?
A. As a rule set
B. As a rule group
C. As a decision table
D. As a business rule bean
Answer: A
QUESTION 5
In a mediation flow, the call out Response node’s fail terminal is not wired and an unmodeled fault is received.
What is the expected behavior of the mediation flow?
A. A mediation runtime exception will occur.
B. A mediation business exception will occur.
C. A mediation configuration exception will occur.
D. Since the fail terminal is not wired, the mediation flow stops execution without raising any exception.
Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Why would an integration developer select the “Requires Own” option on a BPEL activity?
A. To force a retry of the current activity in case of an error
B. To force a retry of the previous activities in case of an error
C. To prevent a retry of the current activity in case of an error
D. To prevent a retry of the previous activities in case of an error
Answer: D
QUESTION 7
An insurance company is building a state machine for accident claims processing. Before a claim can be paid,
an accident investigator must sign off on any filed claims. If an investigator rejects a claim, the claim should
be returned to the agent that filed the claim for further processing. Which statements describe an approach
that should be considered?
A. Create states called Claim and Investigate. Transition from Investigate to Claim when a claim is rejected.
B. Create states called Claim, Investigate, and Reclaim. Transition from Investigate to Reclaim when a claim
is rejected.
C. Create states called Claim and Investigate. Transition from Investigate to Terminate when a claim is
rejected. Restart the state machine on a rejection and return to Claim.
D. Create a state called Process. Transition to a human task called Investigate for the investigator. Transition
from the human task to Final state. Restart the state machine on a rejection and return to Process.
Answer: A
QUESTION 8
In which situation is a failed event generated in case of a runtime exception in the called component?
A. A business process calls a one way service asynchronously.
B. A business process calls a request/response service asynchronously.
C. A one-way business process is initiated by the Business Flow Manager API client.
D. A request/response business process is initiated by the Business Flow Manager API client.
Answer: A
QUESTION 9
An integration developer wants to restrict who can start a business process when using the
BusinessFlowManager API to start the process. What is one way this can be accomplished?
A. Restrict the role BPEAPIUser on the ProcessContainer application to the designated group.
B. Add a human task assigned to the designated group of potential starters on the Administration tab of the
processes properties.
C. Add a human task assigned to the designated group of potential starters on the Authorization tab of the
respective receive activity.
D. Put a standalone invocation task assigned to the designated group of potential starters in front of the
process in the assembly editor.
Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Which two conditions must be met in a cyclic flow within a business process?
A. There must be at least one cycle.
B. Only one activity is executed at a time.
C. Activities with more than one incoming link must have a join condition.
D. There must be exactly one start activity (that is one activity directly enclosed in the cyclic flow with no
incoming link.)
Answer: BD

IBM  000-315  exams

1
There is a requirement to integrate Message Broker V6.1 with a messaging system that
conforms to Java Message Service Specification V1.1. Which messaging transport should
be used for integration purposes?
A. MQ Mobile
B. Broker JMS
C. Web Services
D. MQ Enterprise
Answer: B
Q2
A Message Broker V6.1 developer is implementing a message flow with an JMSInput
node, JavaCompute node and a JMSReply node. The logic in the JavaCompute node inserts
a record to a database table using a JDBC Type 4 connection. Which three tasks have to be
performed to ensure that the JMS, the database and the JMS transactions are synchronized?
A. Create the JDBC connection using an XADataSource.
B. Set the Transaction mode of the JMSInput and JMSReply nodes to Local.
C. Set the Transaction mode of the JMSInput and JMSReply nodes to Global.
D. Set the Backout destination of the JMSInput node to hold In-doubt transactions.
E. Use the broker Java API getJDBCType4Connection to initiate the JDBC connection.
F. Configure a XAResourceManager for both the JDBC and JMS connections in the
broker’s queue manager.
Answer: C, E, F
Q3
Which component is the contract that describes to the Message Broker V6.1 developer how
to build a Web service request?
A. WSDL
B. Namespace
C. HTTP Header
D. SOAP Envelope
Answer: A
Q4
When designing an online auction store, one of the key architectural decisions made was to
handle and secure Web traffic using Message Broker V6.1. Two important aspects of
security need to be addressed in the solution: authentication and message integrity. Which
transport node is the most appropriate for implementing this scenario?
A. MQ
B. TCP
C. SOAP
D. HTTP
Answer: C
Q5
A Message Broker V6.1 developer builds a message flow to act as a server for an MQ
based Request/Reply pattern that ends with an MQReply node. If a message is received that
does not specify a ReplyToQueue in the MQMD, what will the MQReply node do?
A. Throw an exception.
B. Put the message on the source queue.
C. Put the message on the backout queue.
D. Put the message on the dead letter queue.
Answer: A
Q6
A Message Broker V6.1 developer receives a request to authenticate and authorize Web
service requests to a message flow with username and password provided as WS-Security
username tokens against a Microsoft Active Directory. Which action must be performed by
the developer to fulfill this request?
A. Set the Use HTTPS property of the SOAPInput node.
B. Add a username token in the WS-Security table of the SOAPInput node.
C. Add a username and a password as user-defined SOAP headers of the SOAPInput node.
D. Nothing, the Message Broker administrator that deploys the message associates the right
security profile.
Answer: D
Q7

Aessage Broker V6.1 developer needs to put an HTTP input message onto an MQ queue
for downstream processing. After clearing the HTTP headers, what is the simplest way to
build an MQMD?
A. Write ESQL code to construct an MQMD.
B. Let the MQOutput node build a default MQMD.
C. Use the SOAPExtract node to build an MQMD.
D. Use the ResetContentDescriptor node to build an MQMD.
Answer: B
Q8
A Message Broker V6.1 developer has been asked to develop a message flow that picks up
a file every minute from ftp server ftp.acme.com with ftpuser as the username and
Pa$$w0rd as the password. The developer has added a FileInput node to the message
flow.Which three other tasks need to be performed?
A. Set Polling interval of FileInput node to: 60.
B. Set ftp.acme.com as FTP server on FileInput node.
C. Set ftpuser as Security identity on FileInput node.
D. Set ftpuser/Pa$$w0rd as Security identity on FileInput node.
E. Issue the “mqsisetdbparms MY_BROKER -n ftp::ftpuser -u ftpuser -p Pa$$w0rd”
runtime command.
F. Issue the “mqsicreateconfigurableservice MY_BROKER -c TCPIPServer -o 1452″
runtime command.
Answer: B, C, E
Q9
A Message Broker V6.1 developer wants to create a message flow that will act as a Web
service. What does the developer need to utilize to assure the message elements are
uniquely identifiable by the message flow parser?
A. WSDL
B. Namespace
C. HTTP Header
D. SOAP Envelope
Answer: B
Q10

4
A Message Broker V6.1 developer has been asked to develop a message flow to route
SOAP/HTTP-based Web service requests to the appropriate provider without access to the
WSDL of the providers. Which set of built-in nodes is the most appropriate for
implementing this message flow?
A. An HTTPInput node, a Route node, an HTTPRequest node and an HTTPReply node.
B. A SOAPInput node, an EndpointLookup node, a SOAPRequest node and a SOAPReply
node.
C. A SOAPInput node, a DatabaseRetrieve node, a SOAPRequest node and a SOAPReply
node.
D. An HTTPInput node, a DatabaseRetrieve node, an HTTPRequest node and an
HTTPReply node.
Answer: D

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Designed to help candidates for IBM Business Solutions Certification master the material needed to study for and pass the exam 000-315. And 000-315 text is a part of a recommended study program from IBM Systems that includes training courses and materials from IBM’s worldwide training program.

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351-018 Bootcamp

Exam Number/Code: 351-018

Exam Name: Security 3.0 Beta

Updated:11/4/2009

Questons and Answers : 329 questions

Exam Language(s): English

Market Price: $ 49.00

Member Price:$49.00

Q: 1  VPDN is short for Virtual Private Dialup Network. In an L2TP voluntarytunneling scenario, the VPDN tunnel is terminated between:    A.   The NAS and the LAC. B.   The client and the NAS C.   The NAS and the LNS D.   The client and the LNS   Answer: D  Q: 2  In most buffer overflow attacks, which behavior would be expected?    A.   A vulnerability used to overflow the buffer and an exploit used to run malicious software off of the stack. B.   Shell code to exploit the buffer C.   An exploit used to overflow the buffer and a vulnerability used to run malicious software off of the stack. D.   A single crafted packet to overflow the buffer and run malicious software    Answer: A  Q: 3  What statement is correct about PAT?    A.   PAT provides access control. B.   PAT is the preferred method to map servers to external networks. C.   PAT rewrites the source address and port.

D.   PAT keeps ports but rewrites address.    Answer: C  Q: 4  When configuring system state conditions with the Cisco Security Agent, what will be the result when configuring more than one system state condition?    A.   Once a state condition is met, the system ceases searching further conditions and will cause the state condition to trigger B.   Once the state conditions are met, they become persistent and can only be removed using the Reset feature. C.   All specified state conditions are used as part of the requirements to be met to for the state to trigger. D.   Any matching state condition will result with the state being triggered.    Answer: C  Q: 5  A switch has been configured to support MultiLayer Switching (MLS). In addition, Access Control Lists on the MLS-Route Processor have been configured to block all FTP traffic destined to theInternet.What flow mask will be used to create each shortcut?    A.   Application flow mask B.   Full flow mask C.   Destination-Source flow mask D.   Destination flow mask    Answer: B  Q: 6  Which option is the correct diagram for an IPsec Authentication Header? Answer & Explanation

Correct AnswerExplanationsNo more information available      

Answer:

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Exam Number/Code: 000-017

Exam Name: Foundations of Tivoli process automation engine V7.1

Updated:4/8/2009

Questons and Answers : 94 questions

Exam Language(s): English

Market Price: $ 59.00

Member Price:$59.00

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 1.A customer wants to ensure that any data sent to the Tivoli process automation engine’s Integration Framework for retrieval of financial data into the Tivoli process automation engine cansurvive restarts and failures. Which statement is true?
A.A JMS messaging engine must be configured with a persistent data store.
B.The customer must have the persist data option set for the Integration Framework adapter.
C.It can be configured by setting a property inside the Tivoli process automation engine after installation.
D.The messages are stored local to the adapter and will survive failures without any additional configuration.
Correct:A
2.What is the correct method to initiate an invocation channel?
A.an action class
B.Java system protocols
C.an invocation message
D.a Java Message Service (JMS) queue connection
Correct:A
3.Where are the conditions for the Conditional user interface functionality defined?
A.in the System Properties application
B.in the Application Designer application
C.in the Database Configuration application
D.in the Conditional user interface application
Correct:B
4.Which tasks can the user perform from the Scheduling Status tab on Run Reports on the Report Administration application?
A.preview a report; generate a report
B.edit a report schedule; preview a report
C.view a report schedule; generate a report
D.view a report schedule; edit a report schedule
Correct:D
5.At which level are Drilldown options set?
A.Site
B.System
C.Item Set
D.Organization
Correct:D
6.The building block of the Integration Framework enables applications to perform the following functions: publish and query application data; add, update, and delete application data; and import and export application data. What is this building block?
A.web services
B.object structure
C.extended Java objects
D.Java message queuing
Correct:B
7.When the agent saves the service request ticket, the system launches into a Service Request Workflow process and evaluates the data on the record. If the agent has not entered asset, location, or configuration item data, the system displays a dialog box with the following options: Close ticket - informational call Close ticket - unauthorized caller Close ticket - misdirected call Take no action If an asset, location, or configuration item is specified on the record, the system displays a dialog box with the following options: Take Ownership of ticket Assign Ownership of ticket Create Work Order Take no action on this ticket Which three Nodes are used in this part of the workflow process? (Choose three.)
A.Wait
B.Input
C.Task
D.Condition
E.Interaction
F.Manual Input
Correct:D E F
8.Which two types of Migration packages can be defined?
A.Push, Pull
B.Ad hoc, Defined
C.Snapshot, Change
D.Dedicated, Run Time
Correct:C
9.A client has two plants that share a raw material preprocessing facility. Which structures would best fit this situation?
A.two organizations; two sites, each with a preprocessor and a plant; multiple systems
B.single organization; two sites, each having a preprocessor and a plant; one geographical system
C.single organization; single site; one primary geographical system; two functional processing systems
D.two organizations, each with a single site and duplicate preprocessor locations; two functional systems
Correct:C
10.Which two types of condition can be created using the Conditional Expression Manager? (Choose two.)
A.class
B.unique
C.universal
D.expression
E.conditional
Correct:A D

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Exam Number/Code: 000-015

Exam Name: IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1 Implementation

Updated:4/8/2009

Questons and Answers : 146 questions

Exam Language(s): English

Market Price: $ 59.00

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000-015 Deoms:

1.Where is E-audit enabled?
A.Users
B.Security Groups
C.Application Designer
D.Database Configuration
Correct:D
2.Which statement is correct?
A.Any type of Ticket or Work Order can be created from the Asset, Location and Configuration Item (CI)
applications.
B.A Service Request, Incident, Problem, Work Order, Change or Release in the Assets, Locations and CI applications
can be created.
C.A Service Request or Work Order can be created from the Assets and Locations applications. A Ticket or Work
Order cannot be created from the CI application.
D.Any type of Ticket or Work Order can be created from the Assets and Locations applications, but you can not
create an activity or task. A Ticket or Work Order cannot be created
E.
Correct:B
3.When configuring inventory reorder options, which statement is correct?
A.Internal requests are automatically created as purchase orders.
B.External requests are automatically created as purchase orders.
C.External requests are automatically created as purchase requests.
D.External or internal requests can be either purchase orders or purchase requests.
Correct:D
4.Which statement is true about creating a Person Group?
A.The Default cannot have alternates assigned.
B.The Site Default is automatically the Group Default.
C.The first person assigned to a group is the Group Default.
D.The Group Default is identified by the lowest sequence number.
Correct:C
5.The appropriate status to invoke a Preventive Maintenance (PM) alert has been determined to be in the
Organization application. What is the Select Action menu item where this can be set?
A.PM options
B.Asset options
C.System settings
D.Work Order options
Correct:A
6.To which two applications can a meter belong in order to perform meter-based Preventive Maintenance?
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(Choose two.)
A.Assets
B.Locations
C.Item Master
D.Configuration Items
E.Condition Monitoring
Correct:A B
7.What are the three types of meters?
A.Flow, Utility, Rate
B.Condition, Utility, Gauge
C.Continuous, Condition, Rate
D.Continuous, Gauge, Characteristic
Correct:D
8.How can unsatisfactory services be rejected in the Receiving application?
A.use the Return Services dialog box in the Service Receipts tab
B.create a negative quantity receipt line on the Service Receipts tab
C.use the Return Services Action menu item from the Service Receipts tab
D.modify the Service Receipt line by entering a value in the Rejected Quantity field
Correct:B
9.An attribute is added to a ClassStructure record in the Classifications application. On which applications will
the attribute be copied to existing records that use this classification?
A.Assets, Item, Locations
B.Job Plan, Ticket Template, Item
C.all applications that have a Specifications tab
D.Assets, Item, Job Plan, Preventive Maintenance
Correct:A
10.What best describes how to construct a Safety Plan?
A.identify Hazards; define Precautions; establish Lockout/Tagout procedures; create a Safety Plan; assign a Job
Plan to the Safety Plan
B.identify Hazards; define Precautions; establish Lockout/Tagout procedures; create a Safety Plan; assign a Work
Asset to a Safety Plan
C.identify Hazards, define Precautions, establish Lockout/Tagout procedures, create a Job Plan, associate the Job
Plan to an Asset, Location, Preventive Maintenance (PM), or
D.Work Order
E.identify Hazards; define Precautions; define how to take an Asset out of service and return it to service; create a
Job Plan; associate the Job Plan to an Asset, Location, PM, or
F.Work Order
Correct:B

Exam Number/Code: 642-825

Exam Name: Implementing Secure Converged Wide Area Networks

Updated:5/28/2009

Questons and Answers : 118 questions

Exam Language(s): English

sample 642-825 certification practice test

1. What are three methods of network reconnaissance? (Choose three.)
A. IP spoofing
B. one-time password
C. dictionary attack
D. packet sniffer
E. ping sweep
F. port scan
Answer: DEF
2. Which three statements are correct about MPLS-based VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. Route Targets (RTs) are attributes attached to a VPNv4 BGP route to indicate its VPN membership.
B. Scalability becomes challenging for a very large, fully meshed deployment.
C. Authentication is done using a digital certificate or pre-shared key.
D. A VPN client is required for client-initiated deployments.
E. A VPN client is not required for users to interact with the network.
F. An MPLS-based VPN is highly scalable because no site-to-site peering is required.
Answer: AEF
3. What are two steps that must be taken when mitigating a worm attack? (Choose two.)
A. Inoculate systems by applying update patches.
B. Limit traffic rate.
C. Apply authentication.
D. Quarantine infected machines.
E. Enable anti-spoof measures
Answer: AD
4. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be derived from the SDM firewall configuration that is shown?
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A. Access-list 100 was configured for the trusted interface, and access-list 101 was configured for the
untrusted interface.
B. Access-list 101 was configured for the trusted interface, and access-list 100 was configured for the
untrusted interface.
C. Access-list 100 was configured for the inbound direction, and access-list 101 was configured for the
outbound direction on the trusted interface.
D. Access-list 100 was configured for the inbound direction, and access-list 101 was configured for the
outbound direction on the untrusted interface.
Answer: A
5. Which three statements about IOS Firewall configurations are true? (Choose three.)
A. The IP inspection rule can be applied in the inbound direction on the secured interface.
B. The IP inspection rule can be applied in the outbound direction on the unsecured interface.
C. The ACL applied in the outbound direction on the unsecured interface should be an extended ACL.
D. The ACL applied in the inbound direction on the unsecured interface should be an extended ACL.
E. For temporary openings to be created dynamically by Cisco IOS Firewall, the access-list for the returning
traffic must be a standard ACL.
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F. For temporary openings to be created dynamically by Cisco IOS Firewall, the IP inspection rule must be
applied to the secured interface.
Answer: ABD
6. Which statement describes the Authentication Proxy feature?
A. All traffic is permitted from the inbound to the outbound interface upon successful authentication of the
user.
B. A specific access profile is retrieved from a TACACS+ or RADIUS server and applied to an IOS Firewall
based on user provided credentials.
C. Prior to responding to a proxy ARP, the router will prompt the user for a login and password which are
authenticated based on the configured AAA policy.
D. The proxy server capabilities of the IOS Firewall are enabled upon successful authentication of the user.
Answer: B
7. Refer to the exhibit.Which two statements are true about the authentication method used to authenticate
users who want privileged access into Router1? (Choose two.)
A. All users will be authenticated using the RADIUS server. If the RADIUS server is unavailable, the router
will attempt to authenticate the user using its local database.
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B. All users will be authenticated using the RADIUS server. If the RADIUS server is unavailable, the
authentication process stops and no other authentication method is attempted.
C. All users will be authenticated using the RADIUS server. If the user authentication fails, the router will
attempt to authenticate the user using its local database.
D. All users will be authenticated using the RADIUS server. If the user authentication fails, the
authentication process stops and no other authentication method is attempted.
E. The default login authentication method is applied automatically to all lines including console, auxiliary,
TTY, and VTY lines.
Answer: AD
8. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the presented information, which configuration was completed on the
router CPE?
A. CPE(config)# ip nat inside source list 101 interface Dialer0 CPE(config)# access-list 101 permit ip
10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any
B. CPE(config)# ip nat inside source list 101 interface Dialer0 overload CPE(config)# access-list 101 permit
ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any
C. CPE(config)# ip nat inside source list 101 interface Ethernet 0/0 CPE(config)# access-list 101 permit ip
10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any
D. CPE(config)# ip nat inside source list 101 interface Ethernet 0/0 overload CPE(config)# access-list 101
permit ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any
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E. CPE(config)# ip nat inside source list 101 interface Ethernet 0/1 CPE(config)# access-list 101 permit ip
10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any
F. CPE(config)# ip nat inside source list 101 interface Ethernet 0/1 overload CPE(config)# access-list 101
permit ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any
Answer: B
9. Refer to the exhibit. FastEthernet0/0 has been assigned a network address of 200.0.1.2/24 and no ACL
has been applied to that interface. Serial0/0/0 has been assigned a network address of 200.0.0.1/30.
Assuming that there are no network-related problems, which ping will be successful?
A. from 200.0.0.1 to 200.0.0.2
B. from 200.0.0.2 to 200.0.0.1
C. from 200.0.0.2 to 200.0.1.1
D. from 200.0.0.2 to 200.0.1.2
E. from 200.0.1.1 to 200.0.0.2
F. from 200.0.1.2 to 200.0.0.2
Answer: A
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10. If an edge Label Switch Router (LSR) is properly configured, which three combinations are possible?
(Choose three.)
A. A received IP packet is forwarded based on the IP destination address and the packet is sent as an IP
packet.
B. An IP destination exists in the IP forwarding table. A received labeled packet is dropped because the
label is not found in the LFIB table.
C. There is an MPLS label-switched path toward the destination. A received IP packet is dropped because
the destination is not found in the IP forwarding table.
D. A received IP packet is forwarded based on the IP destination address and the packet is sent as a
labeled packet.
E. A received labeled IP packet is forwarded based upon both the label and the IP address.
F. A received labeled packet is forwarded based on the label. After the label is swapped, the newly labeled
packet is sent.
Answer: ADF
11.Which approach for identifying malicious traffic involves looking for a fixed sequence of bytes in a single
packet or in predefined content?
A. policy-based
B. anomaly-based
C. honeypot-based
D. signature-based
E. regular-expression-based
Answer: D
12. Which three DSL technologies support an analog POTS channel and utilize the entire bandwidth of the
copper to carry data? (Choose three.)
A. ADSL
B. IDSL
C. SDSL
D. RADSL
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E. VDSL
Answer: ADE
13. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information that is provided, which statement is true?
A. The IOS firewall has allowed an HTTP session between two devices.
B. A TCP session that started between 192.168.1.116 and 192.168.101.115 caused dynamic ACL entries
to be created.
C. A UDP session that started between 192.168.1.116 and 192.168.101.115 caused dynamic ACL entries
to be created.
D. Telnet is the only protocol allowed through this IOS firewall configuration.
Answer: B
14. Refer to the exhibit. What Cisco feature generated the configuration?
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A. EZ VPN
B. IOS Firewall
C. AutoSecure
D. IOS IPS
E. AAA
F. TACACS+
Answer: C
15. What are three features of the Cisco IOS Firewall feature set? (Choose three.)
A. network-based application recognition (NBAR)
B. authentication proxy
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C. stateful packet filtering
D. AAA services
E. proxy server
F. IPS
Answer: BCF
16. Refer to the exhibit, which shows a PPPoA diagram and partial SOHO77 configuration. Which
command needs to be applied to the SOHO77 to complete the configuration?
A. encapsulation aal5snap applied to the PVC.
B. encapsulation aal5ciscoppp applied to the PVC
C. encapsulation aal5ciscoppp applied to the ATM0 interface
D. encapsulation aal5mux ppp dialer applied to the ATM0 interface
E. encapsulation aal5mux ppp dialer applied to the PVC
Answer: E
17. Which three techniques should be used to secure management protocols? (Choose three.)
A. Configure SNMP with only read-only community strings.
B. Encrypt TFTP and syslog traffic in an IPSec tunnel.
C. Implement RFC 2827 filtering at the perimeter router when allowing syslog access from devices on the
outside of a firewall.
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D. Synchronize the NTP master clock with an Internet atomic clock.
E. Use SNMP version 2.
F. Use TFTP version 3 or above because these versions support a cryptographic authentication
mechanism between peers.
Answer: ABC
18. Which two active response capabilities can be configured on an intrusion detection system (IDS) in
response to malicious traffic detection? (Choose two.)
A. the initiation of dynamic access lists on the IDS to prevent further malicious traffic
B. the configuration of network devices to prevent malicious traffic from passing through
C. the shutdown of ports on intermediary devices
D. the transmission of a TCP reset to the offending end host
E. the invoking of SNMP-sourced controls
Answer: BD
19. What are three objectives that the no ip inspect command achieves? (Choose three.)
A. removes the entire CBAC configuration
B. removes all associated static ACLs
C. turns off the automatic audit feature in SDM
D. denies HTTP and Java applets to the inside interface but permits this traffic to the DMZ
E. resets all global timeouts and thresholds to the defaults
F. deletes all existing sessions
Answer: AEF
20. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the results of clicking the OK button in the Security
Device Manager (SDM) Add a Signature Location window?
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A. SDM will respond with a message asking for the URL that points to the 256MB.sdf file.
B. Cisco IOS IPS will choose to load the 256MB.sdf only if the Built-in Signatures (as backup) check box is
unchecked.
C. If Cisco IOS IPS fails to load the 256MB.sdf, it will load the built-in signatures provided the Built-in
Signatures (as backup) check box is checked.
D. Cisco IOS IPS will choose to load the 256MB.sdf and then also add the Cisco IOS built-in signatures.
E. SDM will respond with an error that indicates that no such file exists.
Answer: C

Exam Number/Code: 640-802

Exam Name: Cisco Certified Network Associate

Updated:5/28/2009

Questons and Answers : 155 questions

Exam Language(s): English

Market Price: $ 49.00

Member Price:$49.00

exams  deom :

106. Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
Answer: ACE
107. Which two values are used by Spanning Tree Protocol to elect a root bridge? (Choose two.)
A. amount of RAM
B. bridge priority
C. IOS version
D. IP address
E. MAC address
F. speed of the links
Answer: BE
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108. Given the address 192.168.20.19/28, which of the following are valid host addresses on this subnet?
(Choose two.)
A. 192.168.20.29
B. 192.168.20.16
C. 192.168.20.17
D. 192.168.20.31
E. 192.168.20.0
Answer: AC
109. Identify the four valid IPv6 addresses. (Choose four.)
A. ::
B. ::192:168:0:1
C. 2000::
D. 2001:3452:4952:2837::
E. 2002:c0a8:101::42
F. 2003:dead:beef:4dad:23:46:bb:101
Answer: ABEF
110. Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which
command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two.)
A. the amount of available ROM
B. the amount of available flash and RAM memory
C. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router
D. show version
E. show processes
F. show running-config
Answer: BD
111. What are two results of entering the Switch(config)# vtp mode client command on a Catalyst switch?
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(Choose two.)
A. The switch will ignore VTP summary advertisements.
B. The switch will forward VTP summary advertisements.
C. The switch will process VTP summary advertisements.
D. The switch will originate VTP summary advertisements.
E. The switch will create, modify and delete VLANs for the entire VTP domain.
Answer: BC
112. A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One
route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of
782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing
table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
Answer: B