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1. What are three options for locating and viewing Veritas NetBackup 6.5 manuals and other documentation? (Select three.)A. NetBackup 6.5 media set (the CD-ROMs and/or DVD-ROMs)B. documentation files in /opt/openv/goodies/hlp (UNIX/Linux)C. hard copy documentation provided with NetBackup 6.5D. online on the Symantec Corporation Support websiteE. help files in C:\Program Files\Veritas\NetBackup\goodies\help (Windows)Answer: ACD 2. Which two cause the Policy Execution Manager to modify the Next Due Jobs worklist? (Select two.)A. when Enterprise Media Manager initiates a request to modify the worklistB. when a backup policy is added, modified, or removedC. when a job is initiated and completedD. when a user initiated backup is requestedAnswer: BC 3. In Veritas NetBackup 6.5 there are currently three storage units (STU-A, STU-B and STU-C). STU-A is set as On Demand Only, and STU-B and STU-C do not have On Demand Only selected. Three policies have been created as follows: PolicyA is set up to use storage unit STU-A, PolicyB is set up as Any Available storage unit and PolicyC is set up to use STU-C.If STU-B fills up, and STU-A and STU-C still have available space, what happens to future backups for PolicyB?A. Backups will use STU-A.B. Backups will use STU-C.C. Backups will remain queued waiting for available space on STU-B.D. Backups will fail with an error message indicating media is unavailable.Answer: B 4. In your data center, application data is deemed to be the most important data. You use Platinum Data Classification in the policy to back up the Application data. You have UNIX clients that use Silver and Bronze Data Classifications in their policies. There are Windows clients that do not use Data Classifications. All data is backed up to DSSUs, have a one-year retention and have relocated to tape.Which backup images are deleted first from the DSSUs when the disk becomes full?A. application backupsB. UNIX client backupsC. Windows client backupsD. No backups are deleted.Answer: C 5. Which three statements are true about exclude lists? (Select three.)A. They can be specific for schedules.B. They can be specific for policies.C. They can be used during user initiated backups.D. They can use wildcards for file names.E. They can be run after the include list.Answer: ABD 6. What happens when a backup is started and there are no tapes in the pool specified in the policy?A. The backup automatically fails and a status code 96 is shown.B. The Media Manager tries to move a tape from the Scratch Pool to the specified pool.C. The oldest Full backup is deleted, and that tape is reused for the backup.D. The GUI pops up a message asking the administrator which action to take.Answer: B

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1. What are three options for locating and viewing Veritas NetBackup 6.5 manuals and other documentation? (Select three.)A. NetBackup 6.5 media set (the CD-ROMs and/or DVD-ROMs)B. documentation files in /opt/openv/goodies/hlp (UNIX/Linux)C. hard copy documentation provided with NetBackup 6.5D. online on the Symantec Corporation Support websiteE. help files in C:\Program Files\Veritas\NetBackup\goodies\help (Windows)Answer: ACD     2. Which two cause the Policy Execution Manager to modify the Next Due Jobs worklist? (Select two.)A. when Enterprise Media Manager initiates a request to modify the worklistB. when a backup policy is added, modified, or removedC. when a job is initiated and completedD. when a user initiated backup is requestedAnswer: BC     3. An environment already has two robots configured, and the NetBackup Administration Console is being used to configure a new IBM TLD-type robot. Which name is given to the new robot by default?A. TLD(2)B. ROBOT_3C. TLD(3)D. IBM.TLD.3Answer: A     4. Which statement is true about Veritas NetBackup 6.5 Data Classifications?A. They control the execution of backups.B. They schedule client backups.C. They can be used to bias the deletion of backup images.D. They are service level agreements.Answer: C     5. What is the purpose of the nbdb_ping command in Veritas NetBackup 6.5?A. to determine if a Media Server has connectivity to the EMM databaseB. to check the health and status of the Sybase ASA databaseC. to create a roll-back checkpoint in the NetBackup Binary databaseD. to run a simple handshake test between the Master and all Media ServersAnswer: B     6. Which two disk-based features support data de-duplication? (Select two.)A. SAN DiskB. Flexible DiskC. OpenStorage DiskD. PureDisk StorageAnswer: CD     7. What are two features of the Flexible Disk Option? (Select two.)A. shared diskB. de-duplicationC. replicationD. advanced diskAnswer: AD

 Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows (STS)
Exam Number/Code : ST0-052
Exam Name : Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows (STS)
Questions and Answers : 158 Q&As

1. Which backup method should you use to back up only the files that were changed today?A. fullB. working setC. archiveD. differentialAnswer: B     2. Which option or agent was enhanced to support Windows Server 2008 Read Only Domain Controllers (RODC)?A. Central Admin Server Option (CASO)B. Agent for Microsoft SharePointC. Active Directory Recovery AgentD. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)Answer: C     3. Which statement is true about performing a granular restore of an Active Directory object to a Windows 2008 Read-Only Domain Controller (RODC)?A. Granular restores of individual objects to the RODC are NOT allowed.B. The Windows Active Directory service on the RODC must be stopped before the restore starts.C. The individual object must first be restored to the Windows Active Directory Lightweight Directory Service (Ad LDS).D. The Windows VSS service on the RODC must be stopped before the restore starts.Answer: A     4. Which three security attributes does Symantec Backup Exec 12 designate for its service account or an existing user account during installation? (Select three.)A. domain administratorB. backup operatorC. create a token objectD. administrative networkE. event viewer operatorAnswer: ABC     5. Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 Agent/Option is necessary for encrypting a backup?A. Advanced Device and Media Management (ADAMM)B. Central Admin Server Option (CASO)C. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)D. Remote Agent for Windows Systems (RAWS)Answer: D     6. Which two actions can you perform on a selection list when running in a Central Admin Server Option (CASO) environment? (Select two.)A. restrict backup to specific devices on media serversB. restrict which users can run restore jobsC. restrict backup to media servers in a poolD. restrict which media servers can run duplicate jobsAnswer: AC     7. You need to restore data from a family of three tapes. The first tape is missing.Which option should you change to allow the remaining tapes to be cataloged?A. “Request all media in the sequence for catalog operations”B. “Use storage media-based catalogs”C. “Enable direct access recovery”D. “Associate media with ‘Imported Media’ media set”Answer: A     8. What are three types of templates? (Select three.)A. Duplicate Backup Sets templateB. Export Media templateC. Synthetic Backup templateD. Erase Media templateE. Import Media templateAnswer: ABC     9. Which three options are available for Symantec Backup Exec 12? (Select three.)A. Backup Exec SAN Media Server OptionB. Backup Exec System Recovery OptionC. Backup Exec Inline Tape Copy OptionD. Backup Exec Desktop Laptop OptionE. Backup Exec Intelligent Disaster Recovery OptionAnswer: BDE     10. What are three features of the Central Admin Server Option (CASO)? (Select three.)A. distributed catalogsB. administration of NetWare media serverC. load balancing across media serversD. management of other central administration serversE. centralized catalogsAnswer: ACE

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Exam Number/Code: OG0-9AB

Exam Name: TOGAF 8 - 9 Advanced Bridge

Updated:3/15/2010

Questons and Answers : 40 questions

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1. According to TOGAF, which of the following are the architecture domains that are commonly accepted subsets of an overall enterprise architecture?A. Application, Business, Data, TechnologyB. Capability, Segment, StrategicC. Context, Definition, Governance, TransformationD. Definition, Realization, Transition, VisionAnswer: A 2. In TOGAF, what is the difference between an artifact and a deliverable? A. An artifact will contain one or more deliverablesB. Artifacts and deliverables are synonymous; there is no difference between themC. Deliverables are prepared by the Project Manager, whereas artifacts are defined by the ArchitectD. Deliverables are reusable, whereas artifacts are unique to a given architecture projectE. Deliverables are specified as contractual outputs from a project, whereas artifacts are notAnswer: E 3. Which one of the following describes the main components within the TOGAF Architecture Repository? A. Organizational Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Best Practices, Reference Library, Compliance StrategyB. Architecture Metamodel, Organizational Capability Model, Application Landscape, SIB, Reference Library, Governance ModelC. Business Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library, Governance LogD. Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library, Governance LogAnswer: D 4. If a technique is referenced by processes categorized as TOGAF Core and TOGAF Mandated in the Document Categorization Model, then in which category should it be placed? A. TOGAF ExtensionB. TOGAF Guidelines and TechniquesC. TOGAF RecommendedD. TOGAF SupportingAnswer: C

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Q: 1
Which statement is FALSE about an EndPoint security Protected Configuration?
A. All resources are protected by at least one pre-logon check
B. Different resources can be protected by different pre-logon checks
C. Resources can be required to pass more than one pre-logon check
D. Within one pre-logon sequence some checks can be used to protect resources and other
checks can restrict access to the logon screen
TestKing Answer: A
Q: 2
Which statement is true regarding Portal Access: Access Control Lists?
A. ACL’s can be applied to the Master Group and Favorites.
B. ACL’s can prevent favorites from being viewable from the Webtop.
C. ACL’s require that an Active X component be downloaded and installed automatically when
the user clicks on a favorite.
D. Un-checking “show administrator defined favorites only” on the Master Group settings page
will allow the user to browse to any URL regardless of the configured ACL’s.
TestKing Answer: A

 1. Which of the following types of portable media offers the LARGEST storage capacity?
A. DVD-DL
B. CD-RW
C. CD-R
D. DVD-R
Answer: A
2. Which of the following are valid ports for printing over a network? (Select TWO).
A. USB 001
B. \\computername\sharename
C. SNMP
D. IP_ip_address
E. IEEE 1394
Answer: BD
3. While performing a preventative maintenance check on a personal computer, a technician notices that
several unused expansion card slots have open ports. Which of the following BEST describes why the
covers for these card slots should be reinstalled?
A. Help limit radio frequency interference (RFI) inside the case.
B. Help ensure proper air flow through the case.
C. Help prevent moisture buildup in the case.
D. Help limit electrostatic discharge (ESD) inside the case.
Answer: B
4. Which of the following protocols uses port 80?
A. SMTP
B. HTTP
C. HTTPS
D. FTP
Answer: B

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E. 24x
Answer: AD
9. A user calls and says they cannot get to the Internet. How would a technician walk the user through
checking the IP address and default Gateway on the computer?
A. Start>Run>type ipconfig>click OK and ask user to read the results.
B. Start>Run>type cmd>click OK>type ipconfig /flushdns>press enter and ask user to read the results.
C. Start>Run>type cmd>click OK>type ipconfig /release>press enter key and ask user to read the results.
D. Start>Run>type cmd>click OK>type ipconfig /all>press enter key and ask user to read the results.
Answer: D
10. Which of the following BEST describes the function of a DNS server?
A. Secures network traffic through shared key encryption.
B. Provides resolution of host names to IP addresses.
C. Provides security for a network through the use of ACLs.
D. Dynamically assigns IP addresses for easy client configuration.
Answer: B

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 Exam Number/Code: 000-543

Exam Name: DB2 9.7 Application Development

Updated:3/15/2010

Questons and Answers : 100 questions

Exam Language(s): English

cheapTestInside Practice Exams for IBM 000-543 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.

1. Which condition will prevent a developer from using the DB2 Call Level Interface in an application?
A. The developer must control the cursor names to comply with company naming standards.
B. An SQL precompiler is not available to the developer.
C. The application must create an external scalar function with the CREATE FUNCTION statement.
D. The DECLARE CURSOR statement needs to be used.
Answer: D
2. The statement below was used to create a cursor named CSR1:
DECLARE csr1 DYNAMIC SCROLL CURSOR FOR
SELECT * FROM employee;
After fetching all of the rows in the result set associated with cursor CSR1, which two statements can be
used to fetch the data starting at the end of the result set? (Choose two.)
A. FETCH LAST
B. FETCH PRIOR
C. FETCH RELATIVE
D. FETCH OFFSET
Answer: BC
3. Click the Exhibit button.
CREATE TABLE store(sid INTEGER, info XML);
INSERT INTO store VALUES (1,
‘<storeinfo sid=”1″>
<name>Grocery A</name>
<items>
<fruit><name>Mango</name><price>1.20</price></fruit>
<fruit><name>Apple</name><price>0.50</price></fruit>
<dessert><name>Ice Cream</name><price>6.00</price></dessert>
</items>
</storeinfo>’);

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Given the statements shown in the exhibit, a user executes the query shown below:
XQUERY for $store in db2-fn:xmlcolumn(’STORE.INFO’)/storeinfo
let $items := $store/items/fruit, $count := fn:count($items)
return <itemcount>$count</itemcount>
What is the output?
A. 2
B. <itemcount>2</itemcount>
C. <itemcount>1</itemcount>
D. <itemcount>$count</itemcount>
Answer: D
4. You have created a stored procedure (MULTIRESULTS()) on the server which will return multiple result
sets. While developing a PHP application using the IBM_DB2 extension, you want to call the stored
procedure. The code shown below will execute the stored procedure:
$stmt = db2_exec($conn, ‘CALL multiResults()’);
How can you fetch all of the result sets from $stmt?
A. Call db2_fetch_object($stmt) for the first result set; call db2_next_result($stmt) for more result sets.
B. Call db2_next_result($stmt) for each result set.
C. Call db2_fetch_object($stmt) for each result set.
D. Call db2_next_result($stmt) for each result set; call db2_fetch_object($stmt) for each row in the result
set.
Answer: A
5. An existing table has the definition shown below:
CREATE TABLE hr.employees (
empid INTEGER NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
deptno INTEGER,
authid VARCHAR(255),
salary DECIMAL (10,2),
commission DECIMAL (5,3) DEFAULT 0,
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benefits XML )
Only members of the HR_ADMIN group have privilege to SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, or DELETE from
the HR.EMPLOYEES table. A Web-based application is under development that connects to the database
with a user’s AUTHID and enables a user to see their record. No other records are visible.
Which type of database object can be created by a member of the HR_ADMIN that provides the necessary
information without changing the privileges on the HR.EMPLOYEES table?
A. trigger
B. view
C. alias
D. index
Answer: B

 IBM 000-047 is one such examination that hands you an opportunity to exhibit your worth and market value. However, majority does not have a clue as to how should the preparation be done. Everyone wants to pass exam, but has no idea about the test questions, their pattern and the kind of approach they should adopt towards the preparation.

 Exam Number/Code : 000-047
Exam Name : Rational System Architect: BPMN Emphasis
Questions and Answers : 63 Q&As
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1. Which three categories of symbols are represented on Business Process Diagrams? (Select three.)A. SwimlanesB. StereotypesC. Flow ObjectsD. Decision TreesE. Connecting ObjectsAnswer: ACE 2. Which two System Architect functions can be used to copy selected diagrams and/or data definitions from one project encyclopedia into another? (Select two.)A. Data ImportB. File Export/ImportC. Encyclopedia MergeD. Encyclopedia ExtractE. Encyclopedia TransferAnswer: CD 3. Which two benefits are provided by modeling the enterprise architecture of an organization? (Select two.)A. It resolves conflicts with different processes.B. It identifies gaps and overlaps among IT assets.C. It determines the objectives and goals of the organization.D. It shows the extent to which the enterprise is aligned with its strategy.Answer: BD 4. Which three elements are included in a complete enterprise? (Select three.)A. traceability to the goals and objectives of the organizationB. descriptions of the components that make up the organizationC. technology and process standards for deployment and maintenanceD. historical data that contributed to the current state of the organizationAnswer: ABC 5. Which three enterprise architecture frameworks are supported by Rational System Architect? (Select three.)A. NAFB. TAFIMC. MODAFD. DoDAFE. AGATEAnswer: ACD 6. What are three typical domains in an enterprise architecture? (Select three.)A. source codeB. project plansC. business processesD. technology infrastructureE. applications and informationAnswer: CDE
 

Exam Number/Code: HP2-E24

Exam Name: HP Service Sales Professional

Updated:3/16/2010

Questons and Answers : 77 questions

For candidates making preparation for the HP HP2-E24 exam, what they most desire is to easily pass the HP2-E24 (HP Service Sales Professional) exam. PassGuide HP2-E24 includes 79 questions and answers, which are collected and collated by experts of HP. With our HP2-E24 study materials, you can successfully take HP certification of HP2-E24 exam and go further on HP career path

Question:1
Which customer IT requirements are primarily agility related?(Select two)
A. reduction of operational coest
B. adaption to rapid business changes
C. minimization of business impacts caused by downtime
D. reduction of planned downtime
E. innovation
Answer: B,E
Question:2
A customer who owns hundreds of servers is interested in building an end-to end solution that enables HP to monitor this equipment remotely. Which HP Care Pack Services tool should you recommend for this customer?
A. HP Insight Remote Support Standard
B. HP Insight Remote Support Advanced
C. HP Insight Support Commercial Edition
D. HP Insight Support Enterprise Edition
Answer: B
Question:3
Which service levels of the HP support portfolio are classified as reactive services? (Select two.)
A. Support Plus 24 services
B. Proactive 24 services
C. Critical services
D. Education services
E. Software support
Answer: A,E
Question:4
Which HP service do you advise for critical business needs if your customer uses low-end Laserjets?
A. Next Day Onsite
B. Next Day Exchange
C. 4-hour Onsite Response, 9×5
D. 4-hour Onsite Response, 24×7
HP2-E24
Answer: A
Question:5
While discussing the subject of Education Services, a customer explains that his organization already has a training plan in place. How should you respond?
A. Do not waste any more time because this is not a target customer
B. Research the external training vendor the customer is using, if any, to keep track of the competition.
C. Present the HP offerings and explain how the customer could switch to a more established solution.
D. Ask the customer for a copy of the plan. This will allow you to propose a way to gain maximum effectiveness.
Answer: D
Question:6
Which benefits do HP Care Pack Services for Desktops and Notebooks provide?
A. on-site service only
B. exchange services only
C. off-site and on-site services
D. off-site and exchange services
Answer: A
Question:7
Which BladeSystem components and options are covered by the HP Care Pack services for c7000 enclosure? (Select two.）
A. HP Virtual Connect 8Gb 24-Port Fibre Channel Module for c-Class BladeSystem
B. HP StorageWorks 3GB SAS BL Switch
C. c- Class enclosure devices including pass thru, Ethernet interconnect, and virtual connect modules
D. HP BLc 4X QDR IB Switch for HP BladeSystem c-Class
E. SAN Switches for HP BladeSystem c-Class
Answer: A,C
Question:8
Which category of Procurve service portfolio is available only for HP direct sales?
A. Care Pack services
B. Project-based services PassGuide.com - Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams
C. tailored services
D. managed services
Answer: B
Question:9
Which service is the best fit for an SMB customer who wants to purchase an HP LTO-3 tape drive?
A. standard warranty
B. HP Critical Service
C. 13×5, 4-hour On-site
D. HP Proactive 24 Service
Answer: A
Question:10
Which HP service is classified as reactive?
A. Critical Service
B. Support Plus 24
C. Education Service
D. Data Center Service
Answer: B
Question:11
You offer either basic Installation or Installation & Start-up Care Pack services to your customers. Which operations constitute the distinction between the two offerings? (Select two.)
A. confirmation of software revisions and device cabling
B. building the configuration file
C. coordination of network installation and start-up activities
D. configuration download
E. operation and 9×5 software support verification
Answer: B,D
Question:12
Which HP Care Pack do you advise for HP Scanjets if your customer has critical business needs?
A. Next Day Onsite
B. Next Day Exchange
C. 4-hour Onsite Response, 9×5
D. 4-hour Onsite Response, 24×7
Answer: C
Question:13
You are selling a new server and storage infrastructure to a customer. When do you raise
HP Care Pack Services in the sales cycle?
A. Position services after the selling the hardware.
B. Introduce services at an early stage of the sales cycle.
C. Explain services after the initial sale as an attach option.
D. Offer services after the customer has gained experience with the cost of downtime.
Answer: B
Question:14
Which area is covered if we sell HP remote diagnostic tools to offer faster problem resolution as a customer benefit?
A. manage costs
B. increase IT quality
C. mitigate risk
D. improve agility
Answer: C
Question:15
Does HP offer installation services?
A. no, only factory express
B. no, only install and startup
C. yes, only to new customers
D. yes, on-site and at the factory using factory express
Answer: D