1. Which of the following types of portable media offers the LARGEST storage capacity?
A. DVD-DL
B. CD-RW
C. CD-R
D. DVD-R
Answer: A
2. Which of the following are valid ports for printing over a network? (Select TWO).
A. USB 001
B. \\computername\sharename
C. SNMP
D. IP_ip_address
E. IEEE 1394
Answer: BD
3. While performing a preventative maintenance check on a personal computer, a technician notices that
several unused expansion card slots have open ports. Which of the following BEST describes why the
covers for these card slots should be reinstalled?
A. Help limit radio frequency interference (RFI) inside the case.
B. Help ensure proper air flow through the case.
C. Help prevent moisture buildup in the case.
D. Help limit electrostatic discharge (ESD) inside the case.
Answer: B
4. Which of the following protocols uses port 80?
A. SMTP
B. HTTP
C. HTTPS
D. FTP
Answer: B
Help you pass any IT Exams
5. Which of the following allows verification of the port that a printer is currently using?
A. The print queue window from system tray
B. Properties of the printer from the Printers Control Panel
C. Print spooler view in the Printers Control Panel
D. Properties of the port within Device Manager
Answer: B
6. Users are reporting that print jobs being sent to a shared printer are not printing. A technician has verified
the printer is online and prints a configuration page from the printer. Which of the following is the MOST
likely cause of the issue? (Select TWO).
A. QoS for printing is not functioning over the LAN.
B. The printer needs to have a cartridge replaced.
C. A job in error status is at the top of the print queue.
D. The printers IP address has changed.
E. New drivers have been released and need to be installed.
Answer: CD
7. Which of the following connector types is used with twisted pair cable?
A. T-Connector
B. BNC
C. RJ-45
D. LC
Answer: C
8. Which of the following bus speeds is used for a PCIe card? (Select TWO).
A. 1x
B. 3x
C. 6x
D. 8x
Help you pass any IT Exams
E. 24x
Answer: AD
9. A user calls and says they cannot get to the Internet. How would a technician walk the user through
checking the IP address and default Gateway on the computer?
A. Start>Run>type ipconfig>click OK and ask user to read the results.
B. Start>Run>type cmd>click OK>type ipconfig /flushdns>press enter and ask user to read the results.
C. Start>Run>type cmd>click OK>type ipconfig /release>press enter key and ask user to read the results.
D. Start>Run>type cmd>click OK>type ipconfig /all>press enter key and ask user to read the results.
Answer: D
10. Which of the following BEST describes the function of a DNS server?
A. Secures network traffic through shared key encryption.
B. Provides resolution of host names to IP addresses.
C. Provides security for a network through the use of ACLs.
D. Dynamically assigns IP addresses for easy client configuration.
Answer: B
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Exam Number/Code: 000-543
Exam Name: DB2 9.7 Application Development
Updated:3/15/2010
Questons and Answers : 100 questions
Exam Language(s): English
cheapTestInside Practice Exams for IBM 000-543 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.
1. Which condition will prevent a developer from using the DB2 Call Level Interface in an application?
A. The developer must control the cursor names to comply with company naming standards.
B. An SQL precompiler is not available to the developer.
C. The application must create an external scalar function with the CREATE FUNCTION statement.
D. The DECLARE CURSOR statement needs to be used.
Answer: D
2. The statement below was used to create a cursor named CSR1:
DECLARE csr1 DYNAMIC SCROLL CURSOR FOR
SELECT * FROM employee;
After fetching all of the rows in the result set associated with cursor CSR1, which two statements can be
used to fetch the data starting at the end of the result set? (Choose two.)
A. FETCH LAST
B. FETCH PRIOR
C. FETCH RELATIVE
D. FETCH OFFSET
Answer: BC
3. Click the Exhibit button.
CREATE TABLE store(sid INTEGER, info XML);
INSERT INTO store VALUES (1,
‘<storeinfo sid=”1″>
<name>Grocery A</name>
<items>
<fruit><name>Mango</name><price>1.20</price></fruit>
<fruit><name>Apple</name><price>0.50</price></fruit>
<dessert><name>Ice Cream</name><price>6.00</price></dessert>
</items>
</storeinfo>’);
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.cheapTestInside.com
Given the statements shown in the exhibit, a user executes the query shown below:
XQUERY for $store in db2-fn:xmlcolumn(’STORE.INFO’)/storeinfo
let $items := $store/items/fruit, $count := fn:count($items)
return <itemcount>$count</itemcount>
What is the output?
A. 2
B. <itemcount>2</itemcount>
C. <itemcount>1</itemcount>
D. <itemcount>$count</itemcount>
Answer: D
4. You have created a stored procedure (MULTIRESULTS()) on the server which will return multiple result
sets. While developing a PHP application using the IBM_DB2 extension, you want to call the stored
procedure. The code shown below will execute the stored procedure:
$stmt = db2_exec($conn, ‘CALL multiResults()’);
How can you fetch all of the result sets from $stmt?
A. Call db2_fetch_object($stmt) for the first result set; call db2_next_result($stmt) for more result sets.
B. Call db2_next_result($stmt) for each result set.
C. Call db2_fetch_object($stmt) for each result set.
D. Call db2_next_result($stmt) for each result set; call db2_fetch_object($stmt) for each row in the result
set.
Answer: A
5. An existing table has the definition shown below:
CREATE TABLE hr.employees (
empid INTEGER NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
deptno INTEGER,
authid VARCHAR(255),
salary DECIMAL (10,2),
commission DECIMAL (5,3) DEFAULT 0,
Testinside
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com
benefits XML )
Only members of the HR_ADMIN group have privilege to SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, or DELETE from
the HR.EMPLOYEES table. A Web-based application is under development that connects to the database
with a user’s AUTHID and enables a user to see their record. No other records are visible.
Which type of database object can be created by a member of the HR_ADMIN that provides the necessary
information without changing the privileges on the HR.EMPLOYEES table?
A. trigger
B. view
C. alias
D. index
Answer: B
Exam Number/Code: 000-543
Exam Name: DB2 9.7 Application Development
Updated:3/15/2010
Questons and Answers : 100 questions
Exam Language(s): English
cheapTestInside Practice Exams for IBM 000-543 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.
1. Which condition will prevent a developer from using the DB2 Call Level Interface in an application?
A. The developer must control the cursor names to comply with company naming standards.
B. An SQL precompiler is not available to the developer.
C. The application must create an external scalar function with the CREATE FUNCTION statement.
D. The DECLARE CURSOR statement needs to be used.
Answer: D
2. The statement below was used to create a cursor named CSR1:
DECLARE csr1 DYNAMIC SCROLL CURSOR FOR
SELECT * FROM employee;
After fetching all of the rows in the result set associated with cursor CSR1, which two statements can be
used to fetch the data starting at the end of the result set? (Choose two.)
A. FETCH LAST
B. FETCH PRIOR
C. FETCH RELATIVE
D. FETCH OFFSET
Answer: BC
3. Click the Exhibit button.
CREATE TABLE store(sid INTEGER, info XML);
INSERT INTO store VALUES (1,
‘<storeinfo sid=”1″>
<name>Grocery A</name>
<items>
<fruit><name>Mango</name><price>1.20</price></fruit>
<fruit><name>Apple</name><price>0.50</price></fruit>
<dessert><name>Ice Cream</name><price>6.00</price></dessert>
</items>
</storeinfo>’);
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.cheapTestInside.com
Given the statements shown in the exhibit, a user executes the query shown below:
XQUERY for $store in db2-fn:xmlcolumn(’STORE.INFO’)/storeinfo
let $items := $store/items/fruit, $count := fn:count($items)
return <itemcount>$count</itemcount>
What is the output?
A. 2
B. <itemcount>2</itemcount>
C. <itemcount>1</itemcount>
D. <itemcount>$count</itemcount>
Answer: D
4. You have created a stored procedure (MULTIRESULTS()) on the server which will return multiple result
sets. While developing a PHP application using the IBM_DB2 extension, you want to call the stored
procedure. The code shown below will execute the stored procedure:
$stmt = db2_exec($conn, ‘CALL multiResults()’);
How can you fetch all of the result sets from $stmt?
A. Call db2_fetch_object($stmt) for the first result set; call db2_next_result($stmt) for more result sets.
B. Call db2_next_result($stmt) for each result set.
C. Call db2_fetch_object($stmt) for each result set.
D. Call db2_next_result($stmt) for each result set; call db2_fetch_object($stmt) for each row in the result
set.
Answer: A
5. An existing table has the definition shown below:
CREATE TABLE hr.employees (
empid INTEGER NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
deptno INTEGER,
authid VARCHAR(255),
salary DECIMAL (10,2),
commission DECIMAL (5,3) DEFAULT 0,
Testinside
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com
benefits XML )
Only members of the HR_ADMIN group have privilege to SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, or DELETE from
the HR.EMPLOYEES table. A Web-based application is under development that connects to the database
with a user’s AUTHID and enables a user to see their record. No other records are visible.
Which type of database object can be created by a member of the HR_ADMIN that provides the necessary
information without changing the privileges on the HR.EMPLOYEES table?
A. trigger
B. view
C. alias
D. index
Answer: B
IBM 000-047 is one such examination that hands you an opportunity to exhibit your worth and market value. However, majority does not have a clue as to how should the preparation be done. Everyone wants to pass exam, but has no idea about the test questions, their pattern and the kind of approach they should adopt towards the preparation.
Exam Number/Code : 000-047
Exam Name : Rational System Architect: BPMN Emphasis
Questions and Answers : 63 Q&As
000-047 questions and answers for vendor certification exams from Selftest Engine are the ultimate source of success. You will find them full of learning and knowledge, guaranteeing 100% success. These 000-047 exam questions and answers cover all the exam objectives and have been checked for their accuracy, thereby, assuring you success in your certification exam. These easy to understand questions and answers are in PDF making it simple for you to download and utilize. A lot of faith has been shown for 000-047 Test4exam Engine question and answers by successful candidates.
1. Which three categories of symbols are represented on Business Process Diagrams? (Select three.)A. SwimlanesB. StereotypesC. Flow ObjectsD. Decision TreesE. Connecting ObjectsAnswer: ACE 2. Which two System Architect functions can be used to copy selected diagrams and/or data definitions from one project encyclopedia into another? (Select two.)A. Data ImportB. File Export/ImportC. Encyclopedia MergeD. Encyclopedia ExtractE. Encyclopedia TransferAnswer: CD 3. Which two benefits are provided by modeling the enterprise architecture of an organization? (Select two.)A. It resolves conflicts with different processes.B. It identifies gaps and overlaps among IT assets.C. It determines the objectives and goals of the organization.D. It shows the extent to which the enterprise is aligned with its strategy.Answer: BD 4. Which three elements are included in a complete enterprise? (Select three.)A. traceability to the goals and objectives of the organizationB. descriptions of the components that make up the organizationC. technology and process standards for deployment and maintenanceD. historical data that contributed to the current state of the organizationAnswer: ABC 5. Which three enterprise architecture frameworks are supported by Rational System Architect? (Select three.)A. NAFB. TAFIMC. MODAFD. DoDAFE. AGATEAnswer: ACD 6. What are three typical domains in an enterprise architecture? (Select three.)A. source codeB. project plansC. business processesD. technology infrastructureE. applications and informationAnswer: CDE
IBM 000-047 is one such examination that hands you an opportunity to exhibit your worth and market value. However, majority does not have a clue as to how should the preparation be done. Everyone wants to pass exam, but has no idea about the test questions, their pattern and the kind of approach they should adopt towards the preparation.
Exam Number/Code : 000-047
Exam Name : Rational System Architect: BPMN Emphasis
Questions and Answers : 63 Q&As
000-047 questions and answers for vendor certification exams from Selftest Engine are the ultimate source of success. You will find them full of learning and knowledge, guaranteeing 100% success. These 000-047 exam questions and answers cover all the exam objectives and have been checked for their accuracy, thereby, assuring you success in your certification exam. These easy to understand questions and answers are in PDF making it simple for you to download and utilize. A lot of faith has been shown for 000-047 Test4exam Engine question and answers by successful candidates.
1. Which three categories of symbols are represented on Business Process Diagrams? (Select three.)A. SwimlanesB. StereotypesC. Flow ObjectsD. Decision TreesE. Connecting ObjectsAnswer: ACE 2. Which two System Architect functions can be used to copy selected diagrams and/or data definitions from one project encyclopedia into another? (Select two.)A. Data ImportB. File Export/ImportC. Encyclopedia MergeD. Encyclopedia ExtractE. Encyclopedia TransferAnswer: CD 3. Which two benefits are provided by modeling the enterprise architecture of an organization? (Select two.)A. It resolves conflicts with different processes.B. It identifies gaps and overlaps among IT assets.C. It determines the objectives and goals of the organization.D. It shows the extent to which the enterprise is aligned with its strategy.Answer: BD 4. Which three elements are included in a complete enterprise? (Select three.)A. traceability to the goals and objectives of the organizationB. descriptions of the components that make up the organizationC. technology and process standards for deployment and maintenanceD. historical data that contributed to the current state of the organizationAnswer: ABC 5. Which three enterprise architecture frameworks are supported by Rational System Architect? (Select three.)A. NAFB. TAFIMC. MODAFD. DoDAFE. AGATEAnswer: ACD 6. What are three typical domains in an enterprise architecture? (Select three.)A. source codeB. project plansC. business processesD. technology infrastructureE. applications and informationAnswer: CDE
Exam Number/Code: HP2-E24
Exam Name: HP Service Sales Professional
Updated:3/16/2010
Questons and Answers : 77 questions
For candidates making preparation for the HP HP2-E24 exam, what they most desire is to easily pass the HP2-E24 (HP Service Sales Professional) exam. PassGuide HP2-E24 includes 79 questions and answers, which are collected and collated by experts of HP. With our HP2-E24 study materials, you can successfully take HP certification of HP2-E24 exam and go further on HP career path
Question:1
Which customer IT requirements are primarily agility related?(Select two)
A. reduction of operational coest
B. adaption to rapid business changes
C. minimization of business impacts caused by downtime
D. reduction of planned downtime
E. innovation
Answer: B,E
Question:2
A customer who owns hundreds of servers is interested in building an end-to end solution that enables HP to monitor this equipment remotely. Which HP Care Pack Services tool should you recommend for this customer?
A. HP Insight Remote Support Standard
B. HP Insight Remote Support Advanced
C. HP Insight Support Commercial Edition
D. HP Insight Support Enterprise Edition
Answer: B
Question:3
Which service levels of the HP support portfolio are classified as reactive services? (Select two.)
A. Support Plus 24 services
B. Proactive 24 services
C. Critical services
D. Education services
E. Software support
Answer: A,E
Question:4
Which HP service do you advise for critical business needs if your customer uses low-end Laserjets?
A. Next Day Onsite
B. Next Day Exchange
C. 4-hour Onsite Response, 9×5
D. 4-hour Onsite Response, 24×7
HP2-E24
Answer: A
Question:5
While discussing the subject of Education Services, a customer explains that his organization already has a training plan in place. How should you respond?
A. Do not waste any more time because this is not a target customer
B. Research the external training vendor the customer is using, if any, to keep track of the competition.
C. Present the HP offerings and explain how the customer could switch to a more established solution.
D. Ask the customer for a copy of the plan. This will allow you to propose a way to gain maximum effectiveness.
Answer: D
Question:6
Which benefits do HP Care Pack Services for Desktops and Notebooks provide?
A. on-site service only
B. exchange services only
C. off-site and on-site services
D. off-site and exchange services
Answer: A
Question:7
Which BladeSystem components and options are covered by the HP Care Pack services for c7000 enclosure? (Select two.)
A. HP Virtual Connect 8Gb 24-Port Fibre Channel Module for c-Class BladeSystem
B. HP StorageWorks 3GB SAS BL Switch
C. c- Class enclosure devices including pass thru, Ethernet interconnect, and virtual connect modules
D. HP BLc 4X QDR IB Switch for HP BladeSystem c-Class
E. SAN Switches for HP BladeSystem c-Class
Answer: A,C
Question:8
Which category of Procurve service portfolio is available only for HP direct sales?
A. Care Pack services
B. Project-based services PassGuide.com - Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams
C. tailored services
D. managed services
Answer: B
Question:9
Which service is the best fit for an SMB customer who wants to purchase an HP LTO-3 tape drive?
A. standard warranty
B. HP Critical Service
C. 13×5, 4-hour On-site
D. HP Proactive 24 Service
Answer: A
Question:10
Which HP service is classified as reactive?
A. Critical Service
B. Support Plus 24
C. Education Service
D. Data Center Service
Answer: B
Question:11
You offer either basic Installation or Installation & Start-up Care Pack services to your customers. Which operations constitute the distinction between the two offerings? (Select two.)
A. confirmation of software revisions and device cabling
B. building the configuration file
C. coordination of network installation and start-up activities
D. configuration download
E. operation and 9×5 software support verification
Answer: B,D
Question:12
Which HP Care Pack do you advise for HP Scanjets if your customer has critical business needs?
A. Next Day Onsite
B. Next Day Exchange
C. 4-hour Onsite Response, 9×5
D. 4-hour Onsite Response, 24×7
Answer: C
Question:13
You are selling a new server and storage infrastructure to a customer. When do you raise
HP Care Pack Services in the sales cycle?
A. Position services after the selling the hardware.
B. Introduce services at an early stage of the sales cycle.
C. Explain services after the initial sale as an attach option.
D. Offer services after the customer has gained experience with the cost of downtime.
Answer: B
Question:14
Which area is covered if we sell HP remote diagnostic tools to offer faster problem resolution as a customer benefit?
A. manage costs
B. increase IT quality
C. mitigate risk
D. improve agility
Answer: C
Question:15
Does HP offer installation services?
A. no, only factory express
B. no, only install and startup
C. yes, only to new customers
D. yes, on-site and at the factory using factory express
Answer: D
The 646-985 (DCNSS) Cisco Data Center Network Solutions Sales exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of the skills needed by an account manager to articulate a Cisco Data Center Networking Solution to a customer. This includes DC Networking Infrastructure, Applications Services, Storage, and Unified Computing.The 646-985 Cisco Data Center Network Solutions Sales exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of the skills needed by an account manager to articulate a Cisco Data Center Networking Solution to a customer.1. Which product can deploy virtual SSL security contexts logically across the data center network from a single physical device?
A. Cisco Nexus 7000 ModuleB. Cisco Storage Services ModuleC. Cisco Application Control Engine ModuleD. Cisco Firewall Services ModuleAnswer: C 2. What two things can a business implement to achieve better utilization of IT resources? (Choose two.)A. distributed managementB. role-based access controlC. embedded network intelligenceD. consolidation of data center resourcesE. business continuity with mirrored primary and secondary sitesAnswer: CD 3. Which explanation best describes the difference between a data center sales cycle and a traditional network sales cycle?A. A data center sales cycle begins much earlier in a project.B. A data center account manager requires more technical skills than commercial skills.C. A data center sales professional should use the customer’s network team to advise him when best to get involved in the sales cycle.D. A data center sales professional should wait until the design phase is complete before determining which Cisco solution best fits the requirements.Answer: A 4. What are blade switches?A. end-of-row switchesB. top-of-rack switchesC. modules that fit into MDS switchesD. modules that fit into blade server chassisAnswer: D 5. How does the Cisco ACE XML gateway improve server performance?A. by blocking XML traffic to the serverB. by offloading XML functions from the serverC. by providing SSL security for XML transfersD. by translating XML messages to HTML messagesAnswer: B
Guarantee your 310-811 success with our 310-811 Exam Resources. Our exams are developed by experiences IT Professionals working in today’s prospering companies and date centers. All our practice exams including 310-811 exam guarantee you the exam success you needYour Sun training and certification requirements will now be served by Oracle University, the education division of Oracle. We are pleased to have you as a customer and are committed to insuring a smooth integration by:
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1. Is the following statement true or false? The username you use to connect to MySQL must be the same as the login used to access the operating system. A. trueB. falseAnswer: B 2. Which of the following statements are required to create a key cache of 4 MB, assign the MyISAM table world.City to it and preload the index?A. mysql> SET GLOBAL city_cache.key_buffer_size = 4194304;mysql> CACHE INDEX world.City IN city_cache;mysql> LOAD INDEX INTO CACHE world.City;B. mysql> ALTER TABLE world.city KEY_CACHE = 4194304;C. mysql> CREATE CACHE FOR world.City SIZE = 4194304;D. It is not possible to create a key cache for a specific MyISAM table, only the global key cache can be used.Answer: A 3. How can the SHOW PROCESSLIST command be helpful when optimizing queries?A. It shows if a query is using an index or not.B. It shows how the server processes a query.C. If checked periodically, it can reveal queries that cause other queries to hang.D. It shows the percentage of processing power that each query is using on a server.Answer: C 4. Consider the following:mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT Name FROM Country WHERE Code = ‘CAN’\G *************************** 1. row *************************** id: 1select_type: SIMPLE table: Country type: constpossible_keys: PRIMARY key: PRIMARY key_len: 3 ref: const rows: 1 Extra:Which of the following best describes the meaning of the value of the type column?A. The table has exactly one row.B. Several rows may be read from the table.C. Only one row of all its rows need to be read.Answer: C 5. Which of the following best describes why InnoDB tables should always have primary keys and why they should be short?A. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate tables, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.B. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate table rows, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.C. Because InnoDB stores pointers in a log to all the primary keys and shorter keys make this log smaller.Answer: B 6. Which of the following best describes how the relay log works?A. It records the times when the slave connects to the master.B. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is recorded in the relay log first and processed later.C. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is processed first and then recorded in the relay log.Answer: B
Exam Number/Code: 000-378
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere DataPower SOA Appliances, Firmware V3.7.3
Updated:2/22/2010
Questons and Answers : 76 questions
Exam Language(s): English
Number of questions: 76
Time allowed in minutes: 150
Required passing score: 59%
Test languages: English
1. A customer is receiving binary packed EDI using S/MIME over HTTP and S/MIME over FTP. They
currently use WebSphere Partner Gateway and WebSphere Transformation Extender to send functional
acknowledgements, convert the message, and send a correlated response. They are interested in
improving performance and scaling this architecture to remove some of the processing overhead.
How could DataPower SOA Appliances provide a benefit to the customer in this scenario?
A. Add XS40 appliances in the DMZ to provide WS-Security decryption of the secure payload
B. Add XI50 appliances to convert the EDI to XML and send functional acknowledgements
C. Add XI50 appliances to parse the attachments on the request messages and deposit the result on a
WebSphere MQ queue
D. Add XB60 appliances to move the security functionality to the DMZ and send MDN
acknowledgements
E. Add XM70 appliances to send unicast UDP responses to the clients
Answer: D
2. Which is NOT a feature of Configuration Checkpoint Management?
A. The administrator can limit the number of Checkpoint configurations maintained.
B. Configuration objects can be imported from Checkpoint configurations.
C. Checkpoint configurations can be deleted from file system.
D. Checkpoint configurations may be compared against the running configuration.
E. Checkpoint configurations may be compared against the persisted configuration.
Answer: B
3. A company requires syncpoint on each message extracted from a Request Queue. The Message is
processed via HTTP by a backend system. If the DataPower device does not successfully process the
message, it should not be removed from the Request Queue. They have created a Multi-Protocol
Gateway
Service which uses an MQ Front Side Handler and an MQ Queue Manager to facilitate this.
How can they implement syncpoint?
A. Set the Queue Manager objects Units Of Work property to 1
B. Set the Queue Manager objects Total Connection Limit property to 1
C. The DataPower device utilizes an MQ Client, syncpoint cannot be implemented
D. The DataPower device utilizes an MQ Client, syncpoint is implemented by default
E. Create two Queue Manager objects, assign the Request Queue to one Queue Manager and the Reply
Queue to the other then add them both to a single MQ Queue Manager Group
Answer: A
4. Which method finds a host’s hardware address when only its IP address is known?
A. DNS (Domain Name Service)
B. ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)
C. HSRP (Hot Standby Routing Protocol)
D. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)
Answer: B
5. Which statement is true about the TCP protocol?
A. TCP is unreliable since it does not support checksum.
B. TCP has no capability to sequence transmitted packets.
C. TCP sends back an ACK packet if the transfer was successful.
D. TCP is usually faster than UDP and is required for any multicasting transmission.
Answer: C
6. Regarding asymmetric keys and certificates, a certificate contains a subject’s:
A. private key and the encrypted data.
B. private key and the identification of the issuer of the certificate.
C. public key and private key.
D. public key and the encrypted data.
www.test4exam.com
Test 4 Exam
E. public key and the identification of the issuer of the certificate.
Answer: E
Exam Number/Code: 220-702Exam Name: CompTIA A+ Practical Application (2009 Edition)
Updated:2/24/2010
Certification Provider: CompTIA
Exam Code: 220-702
Exam Name: Practical Application
- Real Exam Questions
- Instant Access
- Demos Available Now
- Developed by CompTIA Experts
Questons and Answers : 610 questions
Exam Language(s): English
220-702 is for individuals who are interested in building a future in networking or programme domain on CompTIA products. The A is the prerequisite for any CompTIA Certification. If you want to reach a professional or expert level in the CompTIA career certification tracks, Passing 220-702 test is the first step.
1. A system powers on, begins POST, displays the BIOS version information and then hangs with theerror message Error loading operating system. Which of the following is MOST likely cause of this issue?A. A virus has infected the systemB. Corrupted BOOT.INI fileC. Corrupt MBRD. Boot sector corruptionAnswer: C2. A client has been unable to fix corruption of system files and does not have a backup or an AutomatedSystem Recovery (ASR) disk. Which of the following is the BEST action to take next?A. Copy the missing file from another computer and reboot.B. Execute a Windows repair from the Windows setup media.C. Boot into the Recovery Console and execute FIXBOOT.D. Reboot and press the F2 key when prompted.Answer: B3. A technician is called for a computer that is not connecting to the network. Which of the following wouldbe the MOST common tool used to identify the issue?A. Cable testerB. MultimeterC. Loop back plugsD. Crossover cableAnswer: A4.Which of the following is the BEST solution for repairing a hard drive that results in theNTLDR is missing display upon booting?A. Use recovery console and the fixmbr command.B. Use recovery console and the bootcfg /rebuild command.C. Use recovery console and the fixboot command.D. Use recovery console and the chkdsk command.Answer: C5. A customer reports they are unable to connect to any computers outside of the office and they areunable to connect to the Internet. When the technician runs ipconfig, the customer gets thefollowing output: IP address169.254.2.4Subnet Mask.255.255.0.0Default Gateway.Which of the following could be causing the issue?A. The subnet mask is not correctly configured.B. The DNS client has not been configured on the computer.C. The DHCP client is unable to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server.D. The default gateway is not specified.Answer: C 6. A user reports that their system is starting to run slower, especially when opening large local files. Thesystem has sufficient RAM for the users applications, but the hard drive seems to have higherthan normal activity when opening large files. Which of the following would be the BEST tool to diagnose andtroubleshoot this problem?A. Task ManagerB. NTBACKUPC. FDISKD. Disk DefragmenterAnswer: D7. A user states they receive a message Boot device not found half of the time they boot their system. Whichof the following is the MOST likely cause?A. A dead CMOS batteryB. The OS is not installed on the hard driveC. A faulty RAMD. A faulty HDD connectionAnswer: D8. A user reports they can no longer change the web browser home page. Which of the following is MOSTlikely the problem?A. They are using the wrong WEP key.B. They have been infected with malware.C. They have lost Internet connectivity.D. They need to update their network device drivers.Answer: B9. A technician needs to check which ports are open in the Windows Firewall. Which of the following will allowthe technician to view these settings?A. netsh firewall show loggingB. ipconfig /allC. netsh firewall show stateD. arp –aAnswer: C10. Which of the following are methods to automatically update the antivirus application? (Select TWO).A. Establish rules in the email scheduling program to perform updates.B. Select Update Now from the program options.C. Use the Automatic Update feature built into the application.D. Use scripts.E. Use Windows Update.Answer: CD